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With inflammation of the nose and paranasal sinuses, there are intracranial complications

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In what form of chronic suppurative otitis media do intracranial complications develop more often

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1. The anterior part of the nasal septum is formed by cartilage:

quadriangular cartilage

2. The duct of the maxillary sinus opens into the nasal passage:

3. The maxillary (maxillary) sinuses are finally developing:

4. Antibacterial drops are used for acute rhinitis:

5. With nosebleeds, the correct position of the head:
- HEAD IN A LIGHT POSITION OR SLIGHTLY TILT FORWARD

6. Sphenoiditis is called sinus inflammation:
- WEDGE-shaped

7. In case of inflammation of the maxillary sinus, the characteristic localization of pain:
- PAIN IN THE AREA OF THE MAXILLARY SINUS ON BOTH SIDES, ROOTS OF THE NOSE, EYES, TEMPORAL REGION, IN THE BRAIN OF THE SKULL

8. A strip of pus in the middle nasal passage is a sign of:
-SINLINITA

9. A characteristic sign of sphenoiditis is:
- CONSTANT PAIN IN THE occipital part of the head, profuse discharge of pus and mucus from the nose, deterioration of the sense of smell. PERMANENT UNPLEASANT SMELL, GENERAL INTOXICATION

10. The mucous membrane of the pharynx is supplied with ciliated epithelium in the area:

Nasopharynx (upper part of throat)

11. Foreign bodies of the nasal cavity are typical for children aged:
-UP TO 5-7 YEARS

12. The main sinuses are located:
- IN THE BODY OF THE SPECIFIC BONE????

13. The most dangerous complication of a furuncle of the nose is:
- LYMPHADENITIS (REV. LYMPH. VESSELS), THROMBOPHLEBITIS OF VEINS OF THE PERSON, SEPSIS

14. The nature of the discharge at the first stage of acute rhinitis

NO DISCLAIMER

15. Inflammation of the frontal sinus is indicated by the term:
-FRONTIT

16. It is contraindicated for a patient with hypertension to soak tampons in case of nosebleeds:

EPHEDRINE SOLUTION

17. Localization of pain in inflammation of the sphenoid sinus:
- HEADACHE IN THE REGION OF THE occiput OR IN THE DEPTH OF THE HEAD, MB IN THE EYES. PARIETO-TEMPORAL REGION

18. The correct position of the patient with sinusitis when injecting drops into the nose:
-

19. On the lateral wall of the nasal cavity there is a sink:
-

20. In the lower nasal passage open:
-NALAMIC CANAL

21. The nature of the discharge at the second stage of acute rhinitis:
- TRANSPARENT

22. The term "cacosmia" means:

UNPLEASANT SMELL

23. The most formidable complication of a foreign body in the nasal cavity:
- Difficulty in nasal breathing

24. The length of the turunda in case of anterior nasal tamponade in an adult should be:
-60-70CM

25. Ozena is the form of:
-

26. Edema of the upper eyelid is typical for the defeat of the sinus:
-FRONT. GRID

27. The olfactory zone is located in the area:
-

28. Localization of pain in the back of the head is typical for:
-SPHENOIDITIS

29. For the diagnosis of chronic allergic rhinitis, the following is used:
-

30. Trepanopuncture of the sinus is a treatment method for:
-FRONTITA

31. The Kisselbach zone is located:
-IN THE FRONT OF THE BLANK

32. Rhinogenic orbital complications of sinusitis include:
-

33. Finger examination of the nasopharynx is performed to diagnose:
-ADENOIDS

34. The causative agent of ulcerative necrotic sore throat is:
-Vincent's Spirochetes, spindle-shaped rods

35. Dirty-gray, hard-to-remove plaque on the tonsil is typical for:
-DIPHTERIA

36. Wide opening of an abscess is a method of treatment:
-

37. Characteristic signs of paratonsillitis are:
-

38. Indications for washing the lacunae of the tonsils are:

39. Adenoids are located in the following part of the pharynx:

40. The mouth of the auditory tube is located:

41. The third degree of enlargement of the adenoids is characterized by the closure of the vomer:

42. A characteristic sign of follicular tonsillitis is:

43. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are contraindicated in the treatment of:

44. Detection of white loose plaque on the tonsils is typical for:

45. An indication for tonsillectomy is a past disease:

46. ​​Difficulty in nasal breathing, snoring at night are typical for:

47. Reverse development of lymphoid tissue in children occurs:

48. A characteristic sign of lacunar tonsillitis is:

49. Asymmetry of the pharynx is typical for:

50. The formation of bubbles on the mucous membrane of the soft palate is typical for:

51. Recurrent otitis is a characteristic complication of:

52. The term "adenotomy" means:

53. Among the cartilages that form the larynx, unpaired is:

54. Borders on the membranous part of the trachea:

55. A characteristic sign of subglottic laryngitis is:

57. Inflammation of the larynx is denoted by the term:

58. The most characteristic symptom of acute laryngitis is:

59. If a foreign body of the larynx is suspected, the following emergency care is necessary:

60. The conical ligament is located between:

61. A characteristic sign of diphtheria of the larynx is:

62. If a foreign body of the esophagus is suspected, emergency care is performed:

63. Chemical burns of the esophagus require emergency assistance in the form of lavage of the esophagus and stomach:

64. Indication for tracheotomy is:

65. Complications of a foreign body in the trachea include:

66. A characteristic sign of subglottic laryngitis is:

67. An attack of subglottic laryngitis often occurs at the age of:

68. The most dangerous complication of injury of the esophagus:

69. Sign of a foreign body in the esophagus:

70. Acute aphonia is a sign of:

71. The symptom of "cotton" is typical for:

72. The larynx in an adult is located at the level of:

73. The element of the middle ear is:

74. A healthy ear hears conversational speech at a distance of no more than:

75. A positive symptom of "tragus" in a child of the first year of life is a sign of:

76. When introducing drops into the ear, the temperature of the liquid should be:

77. Itching in the external auditory canal is a sign of:

78. The drug contraindicated for the treatment of otitis media is:

79. Labyrinthitis is an inflammation of:

80. Behind the ear novocaine blockade is a method of treatment for:

81. The otolith apparatus is located:

82. Nystagmus is a sign of defeat:

83. The auditory tube connects the tympanic cavity:

84. Semicircular canals are an element of:

85. A positive "tragus symptom" in an adult is typical for:

86. Deterioration of hearing after bathing is typical for:

87. To test the vestibular function, the following is used:

89. In case of bleeding from the external auditory canal, it is recommended:

90. Protrusion of the auricle, pain behind the ear is a sign of:

91. A characteristic sign of labyrinthitis is:

92. Suppuration from the external auditory canal is typical for:

93. The central part of the auditory analyzer is located:

94. Outflow of a clear liquid from the external auditory canal is a sign of injury:

95. An element of the inner ear is:

96. The peripheral part of the vestibular analyzer is located:

97. Suppuration from the ear is a sign of:

98. "Congestion" of the ear after bathing is a sign of:

99. A characteristic sign of acute otitis media is:

100. A characteristic sign of labyrinthitis is:

101. Removal of a foreign body from the external auditory canal is performed using:

102. Audiometry is a research method:

DERMATOVENEROLOGY

1. Primary morphological element:
2. Secondary morphological element:
3. Dark field microscopy is performed to diagnose:
4. Keratolic agent:
5. Between the epidermis and dermis is located:
6. Apocrine sweat glands are located in the area:
7. Sebaceous glands:
8. Sebaceous glands are absent
9. Erosion is formed within:
10. The epidermis includes:
11. Skin appendages include:
12. Sweat glands have:
13. Ingredients of the cream:
14. The ratio of powder and fat-like substance in pastes:
15. Streptococcus causes:
16. Antibiotics are prescribed for the localization of the boil:
17. Dermatophytosis includes:
18. During mass preventive examinations to detect microsporia, the following are used:
19. An emergency notice is filled out:
20. Muff-shaped caps on the hair are available for:
21. Herpes simplex is characterized by:
22. The skeletal system in tertiary syphilis:
23. A set of instruments for instillation into the urethra in men:
24. The tactics of a health worker in the detection of erosive and ulcerative rashes on the genitals
25. Herpes zoster is characterized by
26. Tertiary syphilis manifests itself in the form of:
27. Your actions in case of detection of scabies in the team:
28. Sycosis is localized, usually on the skin:
29. The skin does not function
30. Inflammatory spots are
31. The most common localization sites for scabies in adults
32. From children's institutions it is necessary to isolate children with a skin disease
33. Priority problem in scabies
34. The causative agent of scabies
35. Terrible complication of urticaria
36. For the etiotropic treatment of scabies,
37. The main route of transmission of syphilis
38. syphilis in latin
39. Potential physiological problem in a patient with gonorrhea
40. The causative agent of gonorrhea
41. The main drugs for the treatment of gonorrhea

OPHTHALMOLOGY

1. The thinnest wall of the orbit is:

2. The optic nerve canal serves to pass:

3. The development of the eye begins at:

4. The outflow of fluid from the anterior chamber is carried out through:

5. The vitreous body performs all functions:

6. The main function of the visual analyzer, without which all its other visual functions cannot develop, is:

7. For the first time, a table for determining visual acuity was compiled by:

8. In the event that a person distinguishes only the first line of the table for determining visual acuity from a distance of 1 meter, then his visual acuity is equal to:

9. Light perception is absent in a patient with:

10. In an adult, intraocular pressure should normally not exceed:

11. The bactericidal effect of tears is ensured by the presence in it of:

12. For 1 diopter, take the refractive power of an optical lens with a focal length of:

13. Eyelid changes in inflammatory edema include:

14. Clinical signs of erysipelas of the eyelids include:

15. Scaly blepharitis is characterized by:

16. Adenovirus infection of the eye is observed:

17. When phlegmon of the orbit is observed:

18. Primary benign tumors of the orbit include:

19. Indication for enucleation is:

20. The main symptom of eyelid emphysema:

21. With allergic dermatitis, there is:

22. Traumatic edema of the eyelids is accompanied by:

23. Indications for opening an abscess of the eyelid are:

24. When the skin of the eyelids is affected by herpes simplex, the following is observed:

25. Miotics are prescribed for:

26. Local anesthetics are used for:

27. Vasodilators are prescribed for:

28. Absorbable agents are prescribed for:

29. Indications for the appointment of caustic and astringent agents are:

30. Visual acuity equal to

PHTHISITRY

1. The causative agent of tuberculosis is
2. In organs and tissues during tuberculosis, it is formed
3. Most common route of transmission of tuberculosis
4. early symptoms of tuberculosis
5. With tuberculosis in the sputum, you can find
6. Diet for tuberculosis
7. Method for early diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis
8. Specific prevention of tuberculosis
9. The BCG vaccine is
10. BCG vaccination is carried out
11. BCG vaccine is administered
12. Diaskin test is used for
13. Complication from pulmonary tuberculosis
14. Phases of the tuberculous process, accompanied by massive bacterial excretion
15. The development of tuberculosis is most conducive to
16. The primary tuberculosis complex is formed by the following elements
17. suffer from primary tuberculosis
18. Fever is characteristic of primary tuberculous intoxication.
19. Physiological problems in primary tuberculosis include
20. Diaskin test is carried out with the aim
21. Diaskin test is administered
22. Diaskin test with negative previous reactions is done
23. Tuberculosis of the respiratory tract is the most common
24. Secondary tuberculosis develops
25. Fluoroscopy is important
26. Symptoms of secondary pulmonary tuberculosis
27. Social problems in tuberculosis
28. Physiological problems in secondary tuberculosis
29. Reliable sign of pulmonary hemorrhage
30. Advice on nutrition for a patient with tuberculosis
31. The type of mycobacteria that most commonly causes disease in humans
32. The main source of tuberculosis infection is
33. Transmission factors in the food way of spreading tuberculosis
34. Typical complaint for various forms of tuberculosis
35. Methods for early diagnosis of tuberculosis
36. Specific drug for the prevention of tuberculosis
37. Means for the treatment of tuberculosis
38. Concentration of chloramine solution for sputum disinfection in pocket spittoons
39. Recommended diet for TB patients
40. For the purpose of chemoprophylaxis of tuberculosis, contact persons are prescribed
41. Isoniazid is used to prevent the neurotoxic effects of isoniazid.
42. Diaskin test is evaluated through
43. Used to disinfect the sputum of a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis
44. Side effects of rifampicin
45. Concentration of chloramine solution for disinfection of medical instruments for tuberculosis
46. BCG vaccination builds immunity
47. Immunity formed by hardening
48. Patients with tuberculosis are shown all balneological procedures, except
49. Work is contraindicated for patients with tuberculosis
50. The risk group for tuberculosis is
51. The most common localization of extrapulmonary tuberculosis
52. Dose of Diaskin test during mass examination
53. Treatment of underwear of a patient with tuberculosis
54. The interval between BCG vaccination and any other prophylactic vaccination is at least
55. The disease that contributes to the development of tuberculosis
56. Dependent nursing intervention for pulmonary hemorrhage
57. Tactics of a nurse when a patient has scarlet foamy blood when coughing outside a medical institution
58. A reliable method for diagnosing tuberculosis of the respiratory organs is detection in sputum
59. Side effects of streptomycin
60. Potential Patient Problem with Pulmonary Tuberculosis
61. Features of tuberculosis at the present stage
62. Resorts for the treatment of patients with tuberculosis
63. Housing conditions in the focus of tuberculosis are assessed as satisfactory if the patient lives
64. The drainage position is given to the patient in order to
65. When a large amount of purulent sputum is excreted in the patient's diet, it is recommended
66. X-ray examination of the bronchi with the use of a contrast agent
67. With prolonged use of antibiotics, the patient may develop
68. With pulmonary hemorrhage, sputum is characteristic
69. A disease that can be complicated by pleurisy
70. The main symptom of dry pleurisy
71. The increased airiness of the lungs is
72. The main symptom of emphysema
73. Anatomical area of ​​BCG vaccine injection

GERIATRICS

1. Senile changes in the respiratory system
2. Age-related changes in the upper respiratory tract
3. chest in old age
4. Roentgenography of the bronchi in geriatric patients should always be carried out when it appears on the background of chronic bronchitis.
5. Most common complication of acute bronchitis in geriatric patients
6. Predispose to the development of chronic bronchitis in the elderly
7. In exacerbation of chronic bronchitis, geriatric patients are recommended
8. When pneumonia occurs in geriatric patients, it is rarely observed
9. Predisposes to the development of pneumonia in elderly and senile age
10. The main complaint of an elderly patient with obstructive bronchitis
11. Most common cause of hemoptysis in geriatric patients
12. Emergency care for pulmonary hemorrhage
13. The expiratory nature of dyspnea in the elderly is characteristic of
14. In an attack of bronchial asthma, geriatric patients are contraindicated
15. Emergency care for an asthma attack
16. Elderly patients with asthma need consultation
17. The main complaint of an elderly patient with emphysema
18. After acute pneumonia, dispensary observation is carried out for
19. The frequency of dispensary examinations for chronic bronchitis during the year
20. The drainage function of the bronchi decreases with age as a result of
21. Exacerbation of chronic bronchitis in geriatric patients is accompanied by
22. Leading cause of pneumonia in geriatric patients
23. The nature of sputum in chronic bronchitis
24. Characteristic sign of lung cancer in the study of sputum
25. For the treatment of chronic cor pulmonale in geriatrics,
26. Potential Problem in Pneumonia in Geriatric Patients
27. Independent nursing intervention for pulmonary hemorrhage
28. Rehabilitation for chronic bronchitis in the elderly provides
29. Acute respiratory failure is associated
30. All of the following are types of aging except
31. biological age
32. Elderly people belong to the following age group
33. Long-livers are people aged
34. Geriatrics is the science that studies
35. The recommended ratio of proteins, fats and carbohydrates in the elderly and senile age
36. To prevent early aging in the diet should be limited
37. Mandatory equipment of the department of gerontological profile
38. Anatomical and physiological features of the respiratory system in elderly and senile people
39. Anatomical and physiological features of the musculoskeletal system in elderly and senile people
40. Anatomical and physiological changes in the digestive system in elderly and senile people
41. One of the provisions of geriatric pharmacology
42. Elderly patients are prescribed medication based on
43. Typical physiological problem of elderly and senile people
44. Typical psychosocial problem of the elderly and senile
45. When caring for a geriatric patient, the nurse must first ensure
46. Physical activity causes older people
47. The aging process is accompanied
48. With prolonged bed rest, it is necessary to carry out
49. Gerontophobia is
50. Risk factors for premature aging include
51. According to the WHO classification, population groups at high risk of ill health include
52. Leading need in old age
53. The presence of two or more diseases in a patient is
54. Age-related changes in the cardiovascular system
55. The weight of an old man's heart
56. In old age arteries
57. What rhythm is characteristic of the physiological type of aging
58. The level of blood pressure in atherosclerotic hypertension is characterized by
59. Leading cause of arterial hypertension in the elderly and senile age
60. Hypertensive crisis in the elderly begins
61. Against the background of a hypertensive crisis, elderly and senile people often develop insufficiency
62. Therapy of a hypertensive crisis in elderly people of senile age begins with the introduction of the drug
63. In hypertensive crisis in the elderly and senile age apply
64. Angina in the elderly is caused by
65. An angina attack in the elderly is characterized by
66. To stop an attack of angina pectoris, it is advisable to use
67. Used to treat angina pectoris in the elderly
68. Anti-sclerotic nutrition for the elderly involves the use of
69. Doses of drugs used to treat CAD in the elderly should be
70. The reason for the decrease in the intensity of pain in myocardial infarction in the elderly and senile age
71. A form of myocardial infarction that is less common in the elderly
72. The introduction of morphine hydrochloride in the elderly is impractical, since
73. Early signs of heart failure in the elderly are
74. Used to treat heart failure in the elderly
75. Signs of glycoside intoxication in the elderly
76. It is advisable to prescribe cardiac glycosides in the elderly
77. Glycoside intoxication in the elderly is promoted by
78. Changes in the intestinal microflora lead to
79. In old age in the stomach occurs:
80. How many times a day should older people eat:
81. The intervals between meals in the elderly should be:
82. Ulcerative defect in geriatric patients is more often localized in:
83. In the occurrence of peptic ulcer in the elderly, the most important is:
84. "senile" ulcers are characterized by:
85. Contraindications to the use of anticholinergics are:
86. The patient is 73 years old. He is in the hospital for gastric ulcer. Constantly complains of heartburn. Given this, which antacid should be prescribed:
87. Physiotherapy for peptic ulcer in old age:
88. Chronic cholecystitis manifests itself
89. Stomach cancer appears
90. Chronic persistent hepatitis manifests itself
91. Spa treatment for geriatric patients should be carried out at the resorts:
92. Constipation in the elderly is often due to:
93. The fiber needed by the elderly is found in:
94. In geriatric patients, it is better to use antacids:
95. Glaucoma is a contraindication for the use of:
96. With hepatic colic in old age, pain is localized in:
97. Emergency care for hepatic colic in geriatric patients:
98. To suppress the secretion of the pancreas, you can use:
99. Possible complications of pancreatitis:
100. Age-related changes with aging
101. Urinary retention in elderly and senile people is usually associated with
102. Violation of urodynamics in the elderly and the elderly contribute
103. Priority problem in prostate adenoma in elderly and senile patients
104. With prostate adenoma, the likelihood of developing
105. Priority Nurse Action for Urinary Incontinence in the Elderly and Senile
106. Urinary stones, consisting mainly of salts of oxalic acid, are called
107. Urates are called urinary stones, consisting mainly of salts.
108. Which variant of the onset of urolithiasis is more common in geriatric patients
109. Dairy products (except for a limited number of sour-milk products) should be excluded from the diet, meat, fish, vegetable oils should be recommended to a patient whose urinary stones consist of
110. You should exclude tea, chocolate, rhubarb, spinach, gooseberries from the diet, limit the use of tomatoes and potatoes, recommend dairy products, black bread, if urinary stones consist of
111. Meat products, fish, alcohol should be excluded from food, dairy products, vegetables and fruits should be recommended to a patient whose urinary stones consist of
112. When an attack of renal colic occurs, a number of procedures can be performed on an elderly patient, except
113. Features of the onset of acute pyelonephritis in the elderly and senile age
114. What changes in the urine most indicate acute pyelonephritis in the elderly
115. Symptomatic hypertension is more common in
116. The most common causative agents of pyelonephritis in the elderly and senile age
117. Predisposing factors for the occurrence of pyelonephritis in the elderly may be
118. Complications of exacerbation of chronic pyelonephritis in the elderly are
119. Clinically, chronic pyelonephritis in the elderly and senile age manifests itself
120. Diabetes mellitus in geriatric patients is caused by:
121. The course of diabetes mellitus in elderly and senile people is aggravated by:
122. Obese people develop diabetes mellitus:
123. Which symptom of obesity in old age is more prognostic:
124. A 62-year-old man has a height of 174 cm, a body weight of 80 kg:
125. With obesity, a diet is prescribed:
126. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type I diabetes) often develops:
127. Non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type II diabetes) often develops:
128. In diabetes mellitus in old age, a violation develops:
129. Diet therapy is prescribed:
130. The main criterion for the effectiveness of diet therapy for diabetes in the elderly is:
131. Patients with diabetes are prescribed:
132. With hypoglycemic coma in the elderly and old people, the skin:
133. With hyperglycemic coma in the elderly and old people, the skin:
134. With hypoglycemic coma in the exhaled air, the smell is noted:
135. In hyperglycemic coma, the exhaled air smells:
136. For the treatment of type II diabetes mellitus is used:
137. With diabetes, a diet is prescribed:
138. Emergency care for hypoglycemic conditions in the elderly:
139. With diffuse toxic goiter, there is:
140. The defeat of the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints is observed with
141. Morning stiffness of the joints in the elderly is noted with
142. Deformation of the hand according to the "walrus fin" type is observed with
143. In rheumatoid arthritis in the elderly, the blood test is most characteristic
144. Important in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is
145. Used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
146. In deforming osteoarthritis, the pain syndrome is associated with
147. Pain in the joints with deforming osteoarthritis in the elderly are observed
148. In deforming osteoarthritis, they are primarily affected
149. Used in the treatment of deforming osteoarthritis
150. Side effects when prescribing NSAIDs
151. lead to the development of osteoporosis in the elderly
152. The main clinical manifestations of osteoporosis
153. The main source of vitamin D in osteoporosis
154. Used to treat osteoporosis
155. Weakness, fainting, perversion of taste and smell in old age is observed with anemia:
156. The clinical picture of iron deficiency anemia in the elderly is dominated by:
157. Iron deficiency anemia in the elderly by color index:
158. Most iron is found in:
159. In the treatment of iron deficiency anemia, iron preparations in the elderly should begin to be administered:
160. The reason for the decrease in the effectiveness of oral iron preparations in geriatric patients:
161. It is better to drink iron preparations:
162. Iron preparation for parenteral use:
163. In the treatment of iron deficiency anemia in the elderly, apply:
164. The effectiveness of treatment with iron preparations is evidenced by the appearance in the blood:
165. B 12 deficiency anemia develops when:
166. Clinic B 12 deficiency anemia:
167. B12 deficiency anemia by color index:
168. In the treatment of B12-deficiency anemia in the elderly, the following are used:
169. The main cause of acute leukemia in geriatric patients is:
170. Sternal puncture in geriatric patients is performed in the diagnosis of:
171. With leukemia, syndromes are observed:
172. Leukemic "failure" in the blood test in geriatric patients is observed when:
173. In chronic lymphocytic leukemia, there is an increase in:
174. In the treatment of leukemia in the elderly, apply:
175. The clinical picture of erythremia in geriatric patients consists of syndromes:

OBSTETRICS

1. The internal genital organs include:

2. The menstrual cycle is:

3. Timely childbirth is childbirth at the term:

4. One of the main symptoms of late gestosis is:

5. The priority problem of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is:

6. The priority problem of a pregnant woman with a miscarriage that has begun is:

8. Physiological duration of pregnancy:

9. Deadline for issuing maternity leave:

10. Duration of prenatal and postnatal leave (in the absence of complications):

11. Possible signs of pregnancy include:

12. With Snegirev's symptom, there is:

13. A protrusion of the uterine angle, detected during a vaginal bimanual examination, is called:

14. With the Horvitz-Hegar symptom, there is:

15. Hospitalization in the observational department of the maternity hospital is indicated if the woman in labor has:

16. The deepest vault of the vagina is:

17. Non-sterile gloves can be used in the maternity hospital:

18. According to indications, a pregnant woman is examined for:

19. With a physiologically proceeding pregnancy, a pregnant woman visits a dentist:

20. The fusion of the sex cells of a man and a woman is called:

21. Most often, an ectopic pregnancy develops in:

22. The thickness of the pelvic bones is determined using:

23. The vertical size of the Michaelis rhombus is equal to the size

24. Termination of pregnancy at the request of a woman is carried out in the period:

25. With a bicornuate and saddle uterus:

26. The ratio of the limbs of the fetus and head to its body is called:

27. The umbilical cord before applying the Rogovin bracket is processed:

28. The filling of the wards of joint stay in the postpartum department occurs:

29. The distance between the upper edge of the pubic symphysis and the upper corner of the Michaelis rhombus is called:

30. Normal vaginal environment:

31. Obstetric hospitals that include intensive care units for women and for newborns are hospitals:

32. Symptoms of cervical cancer in the early stages:

33. Cytological examination for atypical cells is performed for:

34. Hysterosalpingography is performed with the aim of:

35. Before performing an ultrasound examination of the pelvic organs:

36. Before conducting a bimanual vaginal examination, you must:

37. Before laparoscopic surgery on the pelvic organs:

38. Inflammation of the large gland of the vestibule of the vagina is called:

39. The nature of the discharge in candidiasis:

40. Women after childbirth that occurred outside a medical institution are hospitalized in:

41. The uterus takes the form of an "hourglass":

42. The triad of symptoms of late gestosis (OPG-gestosis) includes:

43. The ratio of a large part of the fetus to the entrance to the small pelvis is called:

44. The principles of organization of obstetric and gynecological care are determined by the order of the Ministry of Health of Russia:

45. The issues of organization of infectious safety of an obstetric hospital are defined by the following regulatory document

46. He was the first to propose the use of methods for the prevention of nosocomial infection in obstetrics:

47. Medical staff of maternity hospitals should undergo a fluorographic examination:

48. To process the surgical field and the external genital organs of the woman in labor before the delivery, you can use:

49. Upon admission to the gynecological department of the maternity hospital, the patient:

50. Joint stay of the puerperal with the child:

51. In the postpartum physiological department, bed linen for puerperas is changed:

52. For the prevention of gonoblenorrhea in a newborn, the following is used:

53. A diagnostic test for pregnancy (urinalysis) is based on the definition of:

54. Elongation of the outer segment of the umbilical cord by 8-10 cm is called a sign of separation of the placenta:

55. A pregnant woman with a narrow pelvis should be hospitalized in a maternity hospital:

56. The second period of childbirth is called the period:

57. In the postpartum ward, the post nurse:

58. In the presence of positive signs of separation of the placenta and physiological blood loss, it is necessary:

59. The first degree of purity of the vagina is characterized by:

60. The external pharynx of a nulliparous woman has the form:

61. The distance between the lower edge of the symphysis and the most prominent point of the promontory, measured during vaginal examination, is called the conjugate:

62. The distance between the most distant points of the trochanters of the femur is called:

63. To determine the estimated weight of the fetus according to the Zhordania method, it is necessary:

64. With cephalic presentation of the fetus, the heartbeat is heard:

65. The ratio of the longitudinal axis of the fetal body to the longitudinal axis of the mother's body is called:

66. After normal delivery, the puerperal is under observation in the maternity ward:

67. The set of movements that the fetus makes when passing through the pelvis and birth canal is called:

68. It is most rational for uncomplicated childbirth to cross the umbilical cord:

69. Attaching the child to the mother's breast in the absence of complications is rational:

70. For a mild form of early gestosis of pregnant women, it is characteristic:

71. Nausea is a sign of pregnancy:

72. Progesterone during pregnancy, in addition to the ovaries, is also produced:

73. The risk of Rh-conflict of the blood of the mother and fetus:

74. The control of a woman's blood for Rh antibodies with the likelihood of a Rh conflict is carried out:

75. The next clinical stage of miscarriage after threatening:

76. With a complete rupture of the uterus:

77. The presence in the patient's history of two or more consecutive spontaneous miscarriages (abortions) is called:

78. If the size of the fetal head does not match the size of the pelvis, the mother is diagnosed with:

79. The heartbeat of the fetus in the second stage of labor is heard:

80. The main functions of the placenta:

81. The circumference of the abdomen in pregnant women is measured:

82. With the help of the third reception of an external obstetric examination according to Leopold, the following is determined:

83. Primiparous and multiparous women begin to feel the movement of the fetus, respectively, with:

84. Contractions are muscle contractions.

001. Joana is:

a) posterior parts of the upper nasal passage

b) an opening from the nasal cavity to the nasopharynx

c) posterior parts of the lower nasal passage

d) posterior sections of the common nasal passage

Correct answer: b

002. The outflow of blood from the external nose occurs in:

a) ophthalmic vein

b) anterior facial vein

c) thyroid vein

d) lingual vein

Correct answer: b

003. Glabella is:

a) a point above the anterior nasal axis

b) the transition zone of the root of the nose to the level of the eyebrows

c) the back of the nose

d) zone of the anterior protruding part of the chin

Correct answer: b

004. The opener is part of the wall of the nasal cavity:

a) top

b) bottom

c) lateral

d) medial

Correct answer: g

005. The thickness of the perforated plate of the ethmoid bone:

b) 2 - 3 mm

c) 4 - 5 mm

d) 5 - 6 mm

Correct answer: b

006. Conchas are located on the wall of the nasal cavity:

a) top

b) bottom

c) lateral

d) medial

Correct answer: in

007. The composition of the outer wall of the nasal cavity includes:

a) nasal bone

b) frontal, parietal bones

c) main bone

d) palatine bone

Correct answer: a

008. The composition of the upper wall of the nasal cavity does not include:

a) frontal bone

b) palatine bone

c) nasal bone

d) main bone

Correct answer: b

009. There are turbinates in the nasal cavity:

a) top, bottom, middle

b) superior, inferior, lateral

c) only top, bottom

d) medial, lateral

Correct answer: a

010. With anterior rhinoscopy, you can more often examine:

a) only the inferior turbinate

b) only the middle turbinate

c) superior turbinate

d) inferior and middle turbinates

Correct answer: g

011. Jacobson's rudimentary organ in the nasal cavity is located:

a) on the bottom wall

b) on the nasal septum

c) in the middle turbinate

d) in the middle nasal passage

Correct answer: b

012. A newborn has:

a) two turbinates

b) three turbinates

c) four turbinates

d) five turbinates

Correct answer: in

013. Nasolacrimal canal opens:

a) in the upper nasal passage

b) middle nasal passage

c) lower nasal passage

d) common nasal passage

Correct answer: in

014. In the middle nasal passage open:

a) all paranasal sinuses

b) lacrimal canal

c) anterior sinuses

d) posterior cells of the ethmoid labyrinth

Correct answer: in

015. In the upper nasal passage open:

a) frontal sinus

b) posterior lattice cells, sphenoid sinus

c) all cells of the lattice labyrinth

d) lacrimal canal

Correct answer: b

016. The Kisselbach zone in the nasal cavity is located:

a) in the anterior part of the nasal septum

b) in the upper part of the nasal septum

c) in the mucous membrane of the inferior nasal concha

d) in the mucous membrane of the middle nasal concha

Correct answer: a

017. In the lower nasal passage opens:

a) maxillary sinus

b) frontal sinus

c) posterior cells of the ethmoid labyrinth

d) nasolacrimal canal

Correct answer: g

018. The main role in warming the air in the nasal cavity is played by:

a) bone tissue

b) cartilage tissue

c) cavernous tissue

d) mucous glands

Correct answer: in

019. A feature of the structure of the nasal mucosa is:

a) the presence of goblet cells

b) the presence of mucous glands

c) the presence of cavernous plexuses in the submucosal layer

d) the presence of ciliated epithelium

Correct answer: in

020. Upper resonators do not include:

a) nose and sinuses

b) pharynx and vestibule of the larynx

c) subglottic space of the larynx

d) cranial cavity

Correct answer: in

021. Molecules of odorous substances are called:

a) opsonins

b) odorivectors

c) endoporphyrins

d) otoconia

Correct answer: b

022. Diaphanoscopy is:

a) identification of areas of different temperatures

b) X-ray method of research

c) translucence of the sinuses of the nose with a light bulb

d) ultrasound examination

Correct answer: in

023. The main functions of the nose do not include:

a) respiratory

b) taste

c) olfactory

d) protective

Correct answer: b

024. Nasal breathing in newborns is mainly carried out through:

a) superior nasal passage

b) middle nasal passage

c) lower nasal passage

d) common nasal passage

Correct answer: g

025. The main flow of inhaled air in the nasal cavity passes through the nasal passage:

a) top

b) medium

c) bottom

Correct answer: g

026. Parosmia is:

a) decreased sense of smell

b) no sense of smell

c) perverted sense of smell

d) olfactory hallucinations

Correct answer: in

027. Kakosmiya is:

a) decreased sense of smell

b) no sense of smell

c) perverted sense of smell

d) bad breath

Correct answer: g

028. The nose and its paranasal sinuses supply blood to:

a) system of external and internal carotid artery

b) vertebral artery system

c) lingual artery system

d) superior thyroid artery

Correct answer: a

029. Lymph from the anterior parts of the nasal cavity is drained to the lymph nodes:

a) in the pharyngeal lymph nodes

b) in the submandibular lymph nodes

c) in the anterior cervical lymph nodes

d) deep cervical lymph nodes

Correct answer: b

030. The motor innervation of the muscles of the nose is carried out:

a) lingual nerve

b) trigeminal nerve

c) facial nerve

d) vagus nerve

Correct answer: in

031. The lower respiratory tract includes:

a) larynx

c) paranasal sinuses

d) bronchi

Correct answer: g

032. The transport function in the nasal cavity is performed by the epithelium:

a) olfactory

b) multilayer flat

c) cubic

d) flickering

Correct answer: g

033. Nerve fibers pass through the perforated plate of the ethmoid bone:

a) wandering

b) olfactory

c) 1 branch of the trigeminal

d) 2 branches of the trigeminal

Correct answer: b

034. In humans, olfactory sensitivity increases with:

a) traumatic brain injury

b) tumors of the frontal lobe of the brain

c) epidural hematoma

d) Addison's disease

Correct answer: g

035. Ostiomeatal complex does not include:

a) anterior end of the middle turbinate

b) nasal septum

c) uncinate process and semilunar fissure

d) lattice bladder

Correct answer: b

036. The main function of the nasal septum:

a) resonant

b) protective

c) dividing the nasal cavity into two halves

d) olfactory

Correct answer: in

037. The most active mucociliary transport in the mucous membrane of the nasal cavity is carried out on:

a) superior turbinate

b) middle turbinate

c) inferior turbinate

d) nasal septum

Correct answer: in

038. In the own layer of the inferior turbinates are:

a) arterial plexuses

b) cavernous venous plexus

c) vascular capillary formations

d) mixed vascular plexuses

Correct answer: b

039. Cavernous venous plexuses in the nasal cavity perform the following functions:

a) respiratory

b) heater

c) transport

Which of the ENT organs is most often affected by malignant tumors
Answer: Larynx

101. Note what is the order of appearance of ear symptoms in chemodectoma of the middle ear.
Answer: Noise, hearing loss, hyperemia and protrusion of the eardrum, ear canal polyp, bleeding

102. What is simulation
Answer: Exaggeration of an existing disease

103. On which wall of the tympanic cavity is the gap between the squamous and petrous parts of the temporal bone located?
Answer: on the top.

104. What anatomical structures are not part of the middle ear?
Answer: organ of Corti.

105. What is the shape of the eardrum in an adult?
Answer: oval.

106. What is the oval window covered with?
Answer: footplate of the stirrup.

107. What is the thickest wall of the frontal sinus?
Answer: front.

108. Venous blood from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses flows into:
Answer: system of the anterior facial and ophthalmic veins.

109. The upper wall of the nasal cavity is formed by:
Answer: sieve plate of the ethmoid bone.

110. In which direction will the nystagmus be directed when the left labyrinth is irritated by hot calorization:
Answer: The fast component of nystagmus is directed to the left.

111. Secondary neurons of the vestibular apparatus are connected to:
Answer: the nuclei of the oculomotor nerves, the vagus nerve, the cerebellum, the anterior horns of the spinal cord, the cerebral cortex.

112. On the medial wall of the tympanic cavity are:
Answer: vestibule and ampulla of the horizontal semicircular canal.

113. The boundaries of the lateral parapharyngeal space are not:
Answer: sternomastoideus muscle.

114. The following formations pass along the lateral parapharyngeal space, except:
Answer: sternomastoideus muscle.

115. The paratonsillar tissue is
Answer: Fiber of the palatine tonsil.

116. The innervation of the pharynx is carried out by the following branches, except:
Answer: trigeminal.

117. Reactive deviations of the muscles of the trunk and limbs are directed to:
Answer: towards the slow component of nystagmus.

118. To detect nystagmus, the patient's gaze is fixed towards the nystagmus component:
Answer: fast.

119. Optokinetic nystagmus occurs due to:
Answer: visual stimulation by moving objects.

120. In which coil of the snail are low sounds perceived?
Answer: at the top.

121. What is the name of the experiment in a comparative tuning fork study of hearing from the mastoid process and the tragus of the auricle?
Answer: Lewis-Federici experiment.

122. For an abscess of the frontal lobe of the brain is not typical:
Answer: ataxia.

123. Rhinogenic complications of cavernous sinus thrombosis:
Answer: disturbance of consciousness.

124. A pharyngeal abscess often occurs in:
Answer: no dependence on age.

125. In what diseases of the ear does Carhart's tooth appear on the audiogram
Answer: + With otosclerosis

126. A patient with hypertension is contraindicated in nosebleeds to soak tampons:
Answer: ephedrine solution.

127. What is the nature of dizziness in Meniere's disease?
Answer: systemic.

128. What symbol T corresponds to if the patient's primary tumor affects 2 anatomical parts of any ENT organ?
Answer: T2

129. How pronounced is the air-bone gap on the audiogram in occupational hearing loss?
Answer: is on medium frequencies.

130. What are the most common causes of local nosebleeds?
Answer: injuries, foreign bodies, nasal tumors, atrophic processes.

131. For profuse nosebleeds, use:
Answer: anterior and posterior tamponade.

132. How many times larger is the area of ​​the tympanic membrane than the area of ​​the foot plate of the stirrup?
Answer: 17 times

133. What is the average strength of spoken language?
Answer: 60db

134. Experience in a comparative study of air and bone conduction is called:
Answer: Rinne

135. For otogenic meningitis is not typical:
Answer: + bradycardia.

136. The following local symptoms are not observed in cavernous sinus thrombosis:
Answer: paresis of the facial nerve.

137. For otogenic brain abscess is not typical:
Answer: tachycardia.

138. What sinus is affected first in otogenic sinus thrombosis?
Answer: sigmoid.

139. Most often, labyrinthitis occurs:
Answer: with epitympanitis.

140. Intracranial complications mainly develop in diseases:
Answer: middle ear

141. Where does pus accumulate in an extradural abscess?
Answer: between dura mater and bone

142. To what formations can a thrombus spread from the sigmoid sinus in the cranial direction?
Answer: to the cavernous sinus

143. The function of which cranial nerves can be impaired in frontal lobe abscess in the explicit stage
Answer: oculomotor

144. Foreign bodies in the nasal cavity must be removed
Answer: blunt crochet

145. Difficulty in nasal breathing is a symptom of the following conditions, except:
Answer: perforation of the nasal septum in the cartilaginous region

146. How much fluid does the mucous cavities of the nose and sinuses secrete per day in a healthy person?
Answer: 5000 ml

147. Injury to which wall of the nose and paranasal sinuses does nasal liquorrhea develop?
Answer: sieve plate and posterior wall of frontal sinus

148. The otolith receptor is located in:
Answer: pouches on the threshold of the labyrinth

149. The membranous labyrinth is filled with:
Answer: endolymph

150. In chronic purulent epitympanitis with suppurated cholesteatoma, in a planned manner, first of all, it is shown:
Answer: surgical treatment in order - elective scanning radical surgery on the background of antibiotic therapy

151. Patient K., 23 years old, complains of nasal congestion, hearing loss,
noise in ears. She had a history of SARS about a week ago. On examination:
AD-AS Mt slightly pink, injection of vessels along the handle of the malleus.
SR -4m, nasal mucosa is hyperemic, edematous, mucopurulent discharge.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: 2-sided tubotympanitis

152. A patient addressed an otorhinolaryngologist with complaints of severe itching in the ears, periodically turning into a feeling of pain. In the anamnesis several times exacerbation in the form of external diffuse otitis media. At otoscopy: AD -AS - auditory canals are filled with plates of dry epidermis, sometimes exfoliating in the form of casts. After their removal, Mt-gray on both sides without identification points, slightly covered with “fluff”.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Fungal otitis externa

153. Patient G. went to the doctor with complaints of a feeling of ear congestion on the left, hearing loss, tinnitus (of a low-frequency nature), a feeling of fluid transfusion in the ear, and autophony. At otoscopy: AD -AS - auditory canals - are free, Mt-on the left of the gray color slightly bulges. ShR- 3m. Mt is gray on the right. Rhinoscopy: The nasal mucosa is somewhat subatrophic, the nasal septum is curved to the right, in the form of a ridge at the level of the lower nasal passage.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Mucosal otitis media

154. The patient went to the doctor with complaints of severe pain in the right ear. From the anamnesis, she fell ill acutely after suffering acute respiratory infections. Pain in the ear appeared at night, suddenly gave in the throat, in the head. The pain in my ear was unbearable. At otoscopy: AD -AS - auditory canals are free, Mt is gray on the left, Mt bulges on the right, there are no identification points, the tympanic membrane is sharply hyperemic. Rhinoscopy: The nasal mucosa is moderately edematous, mucopurulent discharge in the common nasal passage.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Acute otitis media

155. The patient went to the emergency room with complaints of severe pain in the ear. He considers himself sick for 3 days after the onset of symptoms of SARS. At otoscopy: AS - ear canal-free, Mt-gray on the left, AD - ear canal is narrowed in the bone section due to a protruding bullous formation filled with hemorrhagic contents, localized on the back wall of the ear canal with a transition to the tympanic membrane.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: bullous otitis media

156. The patient complains of severe pain in the ear on the left, radiating to the temporal and parietal region, aggravated by chewing, an increase in temperature to 37.7? At otoscopy: AS - in the ear canal - a cone-shaped elevation is determined on the anterior wall, the skin on its surface is hyperemic. In the center of the formation - a purulent head, the lumen of the auditory meatus is narrowed Mt - is boundless. An enlarged lymph node is palpated in front of the auricle.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Furuncle of the anterior wall of the external auditory canal.

157. The patient complains of pain in the ears, mucopurulent discharge.
No hearing loss noted. The condition and health is satisfactory, the temperature is subfebrile. The disease started about a week ago. The onset of the disease is associated with traumatic removal of sulfur deposits (hairpin). It was treated independently at home, but without effect. At otoscopy: AD-AS — the gaps of the auditory canals are narrowed, filled with mucopurulent discharge, after the toilet it was only possible to introduce a narrow funnel. Mt - on the right - gray, cloudy, on the left - slightly pink.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: 2-sided external diffuse otitis media

158. The patient complains of severe pain in the right ear, radiating to the temple, ear congestion, headache, fever up to 38 degrees. From the anamnesis - sick for 2 days. The onset of the disease is associated with a runny nose. At otoscopy: AD- auditory meatus is free, the skin is not changed, Mt-hyperemic, infiltrated, bulges, there are no identifying points. Hearing in the right ear is reduced SR-2m, laterization of sound in Weber's experiment to the right.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Right-sided acute otitis media

159. The patient complains of pain in the right ear, suppuration, headache, hearing loss. As for acute purulent otitis media, he was treated on an outpatient basis, but without effect, suppuration continued. Two days ago, pain appeared in the behind the ear region, body temperature increased to 37.5 degrees, and the amount of purulent discharge from the ear increased. Objectively: AD- there is swelling in the behind-the-ear area, the behind-the-ear crease is smoothed out. Percussion determines the soreness of the projection area of ​​the mastoid process. The auditory meatus is filled with liquid pus, after the toilet, perforation of Mt- in the stretched part is determined, pus quickly accumulates. In the bone section, the ear canal is narrowed due to the overhang of the posterior-upper wall. ShR-2m on the right.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Acute right-sided perforated purulent otitis media complicated by mastoiditis.

160. A 35-year-old patient was taken to the ENT clinic with complaints of severe dizziness (feeling of rotation of objects to the left), nausea, vomiting, ringing in the left ear, balance disorders. In the anamnesis similar attacks were observed at the patient during the last five years. At the beginning, the attacks were short-term and short-lived, gradually they became more frequent and became more pronounced. The rumor has gone down. This attack began suddenly and for no apparent reason. AD and AS without visible pathology, Spontaneous horizontal nystagmus II degree to the left, deviation of both hands during the index test is determined.
SHR-left 1.5m, SHRright-5m
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Meniere's disease

161. A 29-year-old patient complains of tinnitus and hearing loss. Five years ago, after giving birth, I first noticed hearing loss, which gradually progressed. Reports that he hears better in noisy environments. No visible pathology was found in the ENT organs. The auditory canals are wide, without sulphuric overlays Mt-gray, pale thinned. Sound perception is reduced in both ears. When performing tone threshold audiometry, bone conduction thresholds were within the normal range, air ones increased by 35-45 dB. Jelly's experience is negative. Vestibular disorders were not revealed.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Otosclerosis tympanic form

162. A 45-year-old patient applied to the audiology room with complaints of hearing loss during the last year. From the anamnesis, it was found out that she had previously suffered pyelonephritis, for which she received an intensive course of antibiotic therapy. During the treatment, she noticed the appearance of ringing in the ears, hearing loss. She remembered that she noted dizziness and unsteadiness of gait. When examining visible pathology from the ENT organs, it was not revealed. At otoscopy: AD -AS- without features. When examining hearing, tone audiometry showed an increase in bone thresholds by 20-40 dB in a descending manner. The air sills rose parallel to the osseous sills, with no osseous-air or cochlear reserve. Inhibition of the function of both labyrinths was revealed.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Sensorineural hearing loss I degree

163. A patient was delivered to the ENT clinic by ambulance with complaints of headache, rise in body temperature to 39-40? C, fever, accompanied by hectic temperature drops. From the anamnesis it was found out that the patient has been suffering from chronic otitis media since childhood. He was repeatedly offered a sanitizing operation, to which he did not agree. On examination, the left auditory canal was filled with pus; after the toilet, a polyp was found obstructing the auditory canal, coming from the posterior superior quadrant of Mt. Puffiness and tenderness are determined on palpation of soft tissues along the posterior edge of the mastoid process. On roentgenograms of the temporal bone, destructive changes in the mastoid process, destruction of cells and signs of cavity formation are noted.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic epitympanitis complicated by a polyp and thrombosis of the sigmoid sinus.

164. A 25-year-old patient came to the emergency room of the ENT hospital with complaints of sore throat, hyperthermia, and weakness. According to the patient, he fell ill acutely, the onset of the disease is associated with the intake of a cold drink. History: frequent sore throats. At pharyngoscopy: the pharynx is asymmetric, infiltration of the posterior palatopharyngeal arch is pronounced, the tonsil on the left is displaced medially and anteriorly.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Posterior paratonsillitis on the left

165. A 25-year-old patient went to the doctor for frequent tonsillitis, subfibrillation, and periodic arthralgia. When viewed in the pharynx: the tonsils are cicatricially changed, soldered to the arches, not mobile during rotation, the anterior palatine arches are infiltrated, hyperemic, there are caseous plugs in the lacunae. Enlarged lymph nodes are palpable in the maxillary region.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Chronic tonsillitis decompensated form.

166. The patient turned to the ENT doctor of the polyclinic with complaints of: periodic nasal congestion, which appeared after a nose injury. The patient presented quite characteristic complaints: if he was lying on his right side, the right half of the nose was stuffed up, if on the left side, then the left half of the nose was stuffed up. At rhinoscopy: the nasal septum is curved to the right, the nasal passage is narrowed on the right, the lower turbinates are moderately hypertrophied, the nasal mucosa is pale pink.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Vasomotor rhinitis, deviated septum.

167. The patient turned to the ENT doctor of the polyclinic with complaints of: weakness, discomfort, nasal congestion and sneezing attacks. On examination: the mucous membrane of the nasal cavity is pale with a gray tint, the discharge is serous, profuse and watery. According to the patient, this condition has been observed at the same time of the year for the last three years. Moreover, the course of the process every year becomes longer and harder.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Seasonal atopic rhinitis.

168. The patient turned to the ENT doctor of the polyclinic with complaints of: profuse serous discharge, sneezing attacks and difficulty in nasal breathing. On examination: The mucosa of the nasal cavity is pale with a bluish or grayish tint, light spots are determined on the surface of the lower nasal conchas, the conchas are hypertrophied, testy density. Anemization of the mucosa did not lead to a noticeable reduction in the turbinates and provoked an attack of sneezing. According to the patient, sneezing attacks are provoked by: house dust, animal hair, food for aquarium fish.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Perennial allergic rhinitis.

169. The patient complained of nasal congestion. He had a history of SARS. He treated himself. I used sanorin drops, but there was no improvement. Nasal breathing was not restored. Recently helps only naphthyzinum. At anterior rhinoscopy, the shells are hypertrophied, the mucosa is hyperemic, bright red, there is no pathological discharge.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Medicated rhinitis

170. The patient went to the ENT doctor with complaints of difficulty in nasal breathing, weakness. A detailed examination revealed preserved breathing on the right, complete absence of breathing on the left, and labored inhalation on the right. The mucous membrane of the nose is pale pink, in the left half of the nose there is purulent discharge in the common nasal passage.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Choanal nasal polyp

171. The patient went to the ENT hospital with complaints of difficulty in nasal breathing, weakness. Anterior rhinoscopy revealed pale gray mobile formations, purulent discharge in the common nasal passage.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Polypous rhinosinusitis

172. A 17-year-old patient applied to the ENT hospital for periodic nosebleeds. On examination, the nasal septum was deviated to the right, but nasal breathing was difficult on both sides. Indirect rhinoscopy revealed a rounded formation that fills the upper part of the nasopharynx of a red-brown color.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Juvenile angiofibroma

173. A patient came to the hospital with complaints of difficulty in nasal breathing more on the right, periodically notes dryness, scanty mucous discharge, which has recently become purulent with an admixture of blood. With anterior rhinoscopy: the nasal cavity is lined with purulent-bloody crusts, which are removed in the form of a cast. The nasal mucosa is thinned, red-bluish in color, in some areas there are bleeding granulations. Perforation is determined in the cartilaginous part of the nasal septum.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Wegener's granulomatosis

174. A high school student received an ear injury - a blow with an open palm on the auricle. Immediately after the injury, the patient felt severe pain in the ear, noise, short-term dizziness was noted, and did not lose consciousness. At otoscopy: the ear canal is free. Mt is hyperemic with areas of hemorrhage.
Determine the nature of the ear injury.
Answer: barotrauma

175. A patient suffering from cancer of the larynx was taken to the emergency room with symptoms of stenosis. A tracheostomy was performed for health reasons. The trachea was opened transversely between the third and fourth rings. A metal tracheostomy tube No. 5 was installed. On examination the next day, the patient developed a cough and a small amount of liquid food in the wound.
What technical error occurred during a tracheostomy?
Answer: Damage to the wall of the esophagus

176. A 36-year-old patient applied to an ENT doctor complaining of pain in the throat after a long vocal load. According to the patient, she always had a low voice, with a soft hoarseness. Breathing is free, the phenomenon of acute inflammation from the upper respiratory tract was not noted. On examination, the anterior surface of the neck was not changed; during phonation, tension was noted in the external muscles of the larynx and neck. Zev is calm, mouth opening is free. With indirect laryngoscopy, the epiglottis is mobile, the glottis is free, and the true vocal folds are free. During phonation, pronounced mobility of the vestibular folds is revealed, without their complete closure.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Hypertonic phonosthenia

177. A 48-year-old patient, a long-term smoker, consulted a doctor for hoarseness of voice, asthma attacks at night. He was treated for chronic laryngitis, but there was no improvement. Recently, shortness of breath appeared when walking fast, asthma attacks at night intensified. On examination, the pharynx is calm, opening the mouth is not difficult. With indirect laryngoscopy, the epiglottis is mobile, the pyriform sinuses are free, the vestibular larynx is without pathology. The true vocal folds on the right are hyperemic and mobile, the left pale is limited in mobility, its edge is not even. In the subglottic space, a lumpy gray infiltrate is visible. On tomography of the larynx, the asymmetry of the subglottic space is determined due to a dense shadow with uneven edges from the true vocal fold on the left to the cricoid cartilage.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Tumor of the subglottic space

178. The patient went to the emergency room of the ENT hospital with complaints of suppuration from the ear, fetid nature, moderate pain in the ear. In addition, the patient complained of general weakness, malaise, fever up to 38°C. Sick since childhood, notes periodic exacerbations. On examination, the area of ​​the mastoid process is painless on palpation and percussion, visually unchanged. In the ear canal, purulent discharge, with an unpleasant odor. In the anterior-superior quadrant of the tympanic membrane there is a marginal perforation through which granulations bulge and bleed when touched by the Voyachek probe. The stretched part of the tympanic membrane is preserved, the membrane is moderately hyperemic and injected. Hearing is reduced, but whispered speech of 4 meters is preserved.
Set the diagnosis.
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic epitympanitis complicated by granulations.

179. The patient was delivered to the department by an ambulance in a serious condition, he answered questions with difficulty, he was lethargic. Complains of suppuration from the left ear, its moderate soreness. He notes a severe headache. Body temperature 38.5?С. From the anamnesis it was found out that suppuration from the ear has been observed since childhood, otitis media developed after measles. This exacerbation of otitis media developed after a cold. Not treated. The day before, a severe headache appeared, body temperature increased, the general condition worsened, a short-term loss of consciousness was observed. In connection with the worsening state of health, he was taken to the emergency room of the ENT hospital. Otoscopically, there is purulent discharge with an unpleasant odor in the left external auditory canal. The stretched part of the tympanic membrane is hyperemic, in its posterior upper quadrant there is a marginal defect filled with cholesteotomy masses. Rigidity of the occipital muscles is pronounced, Kernig's symptom is positive on both sides. The fundus of the eye without features.
Set the diagnosis
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic cholesteotomy otitis media complicated by meningitis.

180. A patient came to the hospital of the ENT department with complaints of dizziness, unsteady gait, involuntary deviation and periodic falls to the right side. Noise in the ear. In the anamnesis, she underwent an extended sanitizing operation on the right ear, which was performed for a festering cholesteatoma. In the postoperative period, short-term dizziness associated with a change in the position of the head was observed. Recently, such symptoms have intensified, dizziness to the right side has become more prolonged and pronounced. There was an instability of gait with a constant deviation to the right side. No purulent discharge from the ear was noted. On examination by the ENT organs, no visible pathology was found. The radical cavity on the right is completely epidermized, there is no discharge. On the medial wall of the cavity at the projection site of the horizontal semicircular canal, there is a small defect in the area of ​​epidermization, covered with a crust. During the pressor, symptoms of dizziness and nystagmus appear, which stop on their own.
Set the diagnosis
Answer: Fistula of the labyrinth

181. A patient addressed an otorhinolaryngologist with complaints of itching in the ears, sensation of a foreign body, hearing loss in both ears. According to the patient, itching in the ears has been observed during the last year, but during the last week the condition worsened, weeping appeared, scanty discharge, the itching intensified. On otoscopy, the skin of the external auditory canals is slightly hyperemic and infiltrated. In the membranous-cartilaginous region there are bran-shaped cups of desquamated epidermis. At the bottom of the bony part of the auditory canal, closer to the membrane, there is a discharge, mucous with crumbly inclusions. The eardrums are slightly hyperemic.
Set the diagnosis.
Answer: Otomycosis

182. A 45-year-old patient was delivered to the hospital of the ENT department by a polyclinic doctor. During the toilet of the ear, the patient suddenly felt dizzy, nausea and a single vomiting appeared, and profuse sweat appeared. The patient was laid on the couch. Nystagmus was observed. In the past, similar symptoms were observed, but to a lesser extent, as a rule, during periods when the patient himself performed the toilet of the ear. The patient suffers from chronic otitis from early childhood. Notes periodic exacerbations of the process. When examining the left ear, there are no changes in the skin of the external auditory canal. There is a small amount of purulent discharge in the ear canal. The tympanic membrane is practically absent, a total defect. The mucosa of the tympanic cavity is infiltrated, edematous, moderately swells. When conducting a pressor test, nystagmus is observed. There are no spontaneous vestibular disorders.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic suppurative otitis media complicated by labyrinth fistula.

183. A 32-year-old patient complains of severe pain in the left side of her head, which has been particularly disturbing in recent days. Appetite is absent, notes bouts of vomiting not associated with eating. For about 15 years, he has been suffering from a middle ear disease with hearing loss. Periodically notes the exacerbation of the process, accompanied by suppuration. The last exacerbation was observed half a year ago, during which a sharp decrease in hearing developed, which still persists. The skin is pale gray in color, with an earthy tint. Coated tongue. Pulse 48 beats per minute. The patient is lethargic, lethargic, tearful. She cannot follow the simplest commands, does not understand the speech addressed to her, cannot remember the name of the objects shown to her. Verbose, mispronounces individual words, does not build sentences correctly. A slight stiffness of the occipital muscles is determined, a positive Babinski reflex and a slight increase in deep reflexes on the right are revealed. When otoscopy on the right is determined by purulent discharge in the ear canal. After the toilet, an extensive marginal defect of the tympanic membrane is visible, filled with swollen granulations. The projection of the mastoid process is slightly painless. Turbid cerebrospinal fluid flows out under pressure. The congestive nipple of the fundus was revealed.
Set the diagnosis
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic otitis media complicated by otogenic abscess of the temporal lobe of the brain.

184. Patient S., aged 45, applied to the ENT department with complaints of hoarseness, perspiration, itching in the throat. A history of a smoker with 25 years of experience. Swallowing is painless, mouth opening is free. With indirect laryngoscopy: piriform sinuses are free, symmetrical, the epiglottis is mobile. The lumen of the larynx is free, with phonation there is a slight lack of closure of the glottis in the middle third. In the interarytenoid space on the surface of the mucosa there are cone-shaped dense outgrowths.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Pachydermic laryngitis

185. Patient S. turned to the ENT department with complaints of: difficulty swallowing, choking on liquid food. According to the patient, he does not eat for the third day, body temperature is 39.5 degrees, skin is moist, voice is hoarse, breathing is free, mouth opening is not difficult. When viewed in the pharynx, there is diffuse hyperemia, the tonsils are moderately edematous, friable. With indirect laryngoscopy, the piriform sinuses are filled with saliva, the lingual-epiglottic space is narrowed, the epiglottis is thickened, infiltrated, limited in mobility, the lumen of the larynx is difficult to see, free. The vocal folds close.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: epiglottis abscess

186. Patient S., 25 years old, came to the emergency room of the ENT clinic with complaints
Sore throat, difficulty swallowing. She had a tonsillectomy 5 years ago. On examination, he notes salivation, protrusion of the tongue is painful. When pressing with a spatula on the back third of the tongue, the pain syndrome increases to unbearable. There is diffuse hyperemia in the pharynx. When examining the laryngopharynx, there are single point formations of a gray-yellow color in the projection of the root of the tongue.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Lingual angina

187. A 20-year-old patient came to the emergency room with complaints: pain in the throat, aggravated by swallowing and talking, weakness and malaise. An increase in body temperature up to 38?, swelling in the submandibular and submental areas. On palpation in the submental region, the infiltrate extends to the anterior and left lateral surface of the neck, the skin is hyperemic. Opening of the mouth is difficult, the tongue is raised, ichorous breath. On examination, the pharynx is hyperemic, the compaction of the soft tissues of the bottom of the oral cavity is determined. He fell ill acutely after the extraction of a carious tooth.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Phlegmon of the floor of the mouth

188. A 52-year-old patient was hospitalized in the ENT department with complaints of diplopia when looking to the left, slight drooping when looking to the left, drooping of the upper eyelid on the left, impaired abduction of the eyeball. Notes periodic headaches in the occipital region, periodic nasal congestion, accumulation of discharge in the nasopharynx. The ophthalmologist did not reveal pathology from the side of vision, the fundus of the eye was without features. On radiographs of PPN, a homogeneous darkening is determined in the region of the left sphenoid sinus and the posterior cells of the ethmoid labyrinth. The rest of the paranasal sinuses are without pathology.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Chronic purulent ethmoiditis, sphenoiditis

189. A 50-year-old patient was hospitalized in the ENT department with complaints of constant transparent discharge from one half of the nose, aggravated by tilting the head down. Somatically healthy. In the anamnesis indicates the postponed meningitis. Objectively: During rhinoscopy: the nasal mucosa is pink, moist, the nasal passages are free, no visible pathology was found. No pathology was detected from other ENT organs. The patient was asked to demonstrate the nature of the discharge. In a sitting position with the head tilted forward, a few minutes later a clear liquid appeared in the form of a few drops.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Nasal liquorrhea

190. A 15-year-old patient was hospitalized in the ENT department with complaints of difficulty in nasal breathing. In the anamnesis: 2 days ago he received a nose injury at a physical education lesson - a blow to the face with a ball. On examination, the nasal septum in the cartilaginous region was symmetrically swollen. No pathology was detected from other ENT organs.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Hematoma of the nasal septum

191. A 10-year-old girl was taken to the emergency room with complaints of sore throat, fever, weakness, malaise. She fell ill three days ago from an anamnesis. Objectively: the patient's condition is regarded as moderate, the body temperature is 40?, the skin is moist. At pharyngoscopy: The mucosa of the pharynx is hyperemic, the tonsils are covered with white bloom, an increase in the lymph nodes of the neck, submandibular and maxillary region is determined. An increase in lymph nodes in the axillary and inguinal region was revealed.
In blood tests: leukocytes-13 x 109 g/l
Segmented neutrophils -23%
Band-nuclear -0%
Lymphocytes-50%
Eosinophils-0%
Monocytes-26
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Monocytic angina.

192. A 60-year-old patient, on the background of a hypertensive crisis, has decreased hearing in her left ear, a ringing has appeared. Hearing loss has persisted over the last year. Objectively, no pathology was detected in the ENT organs. AD -AS ear canals are free, Mt- gray without inflammation. SR-on the right ear 5 m, on the left ear - hears only loud conversational speech. On the audiogram: AD- hearing is preserved, AS- increase in bone thresholds of tonal perception by 50-55 DC in a descending type.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Left-sided chronic sensorineural hearing loss of vascular origin

193. The patient turned to the ENT doctor with complaints of awkwardness when swallowing, tingling, sensation of a foreign body in the throat. This discomfort has been observed over the past year. Over the past two weeks, the above sensations have intensified. When examining the ENT organs, it was revealed: a deviated nasal septum to the left, difficulty in nasal breathing, which does not bother the patient. In the pharynx, the lateral ridges are thickened, on the posterior wall of the pharynx there are islands of hyperplastic lymphoid tissue, against the background of a pale pharyngeal mucosa. The palatine tonsils are small without raids and plugs.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Lateral and granulosa pharyngitis

194. The patient during prof. examination revealed dense plugs on the surface of the palatine tonsils. Examination of the root of the tongue revealed similar formations at the site of the projection of the lingual tonsil. Plugs have a conical shape, rise above the surface of the mucous membrane, and are removed with great difficulty.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Pharyngomycosis

195. An 18-year-old patient was taken to the emergency room by ambulance with complaints of malaise, headache, sore throat. She fell ill acutely, considers herself ill for three days. The patient is weakened, sits with difficulty. The skin is pale moist, body temperature 38-39 °, pulse 82 beats per minute. The mucosa of the pharynx is hyperemic with a bluish tint, the tonsils are enlarged and covered with a dirty gray coating, extending to the palatine arches. The raids are removed with difficulty, under them there is bleeding tissue of the tonsils. The soft tissues around the palatine tonsils are pasty, edematous, with bad breath. In the maxillary region, the lateral surface of the neck, swelling of the soft tissues was revealed.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Diphtheria pharynx

196. Patient N., 45 years old, who moved from Belarus, turned to an ENT doctor with complaints of difficulty breathing, dryness of the nasal cavity, accumulation of crusts in it. Recently, he has been noted persistent hoarseness of voice, shortness of breath during physical exertion, cough. He considers himself ill for the last 10-15 years. Clinical manifestations of the disease developed slowly without the manifestation of pain and temperature rises. The lumen of the nasal cavity is narrowed due to dense pale pink infiltrates, which are localized in the vestibule of the nose and spread further to the choanae. In the pharynx - the soft palate is shortened, cicatricially changed, the tongue is deployed backwards, the lumen of the pharynx is narrowed. In the larynx, cicatricial changes were found in the subglottic space.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Scleroma of the nose, pharynx, larynx.

197. A 52-year-old woman addressed an ENT doctor with complaints of auricle formation, which does not cause any concern. According to her, the patient first noticed the formation about a year ago. At the beginning, it looked like a speck, gradually increasing in size. Recently, the surface of the formation has ulcerated, crusted, an infiltrate has appeared around. When accidentally touching the auricle, pain began to appear, when the crust was removed, a drop of blood. When viewed in the shell more often, closer to the skin of the auditory canal, the formation is 1.0x1.5 cm in size, dense, bumpy, covered with a crust, around the formation there is a corolla of hyperemic skin.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Basal cell (basalioma) cancer of the ear

198. A 25-year-old patient addressed an ENT doctor with complaints of headache, weakness, malaise, nasal congestion, and purulent discharge. According to the patient, she fell ill acutely after suffering hypothermia. On examination, the nasal mucosa is hyperemic, moderately edematous, purulent discharge in the common nasal passage. On the radiograph against the background of parietal hyperplasia of the mucous membrane of the maxillary sinus - the level of fluid.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic bilateral sinusitis

199. A 25-year-old patient was delivered to the emergency room of the ENT department with complaints of difficulty in nasal breathing, swelling and pain in the vestibule of the nose, fever up to 38?. According to the patient, about two weeks ago he received an injury to the external nose - an accidental blow with his hand during a sports game. There was no bleeding. Nasal congestion appeared, which did not bother me much. For the last two or three days, the nose has "swollen", pains have appeared, the body temperature has risen to 38.5°. With anterior rhinoscopy, the nasal septum in the cartilaginous region is symmetrically enlarged, the edematous mucosa is sharply hyperemic.
Set the diagnosis:
Answer: Festering hematoma of the nasal septum

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