Ophthalmology test questions for the highest category. Nursing in ophthalmology

1. Visual acuity is determined using

1. 
   perimeter
2. 
   tables by Rabkin E.B.
3. 
   tables by Sivtsev D.A.
4. 
   refractometer

2. Visual acuity equal to 3 is taken as the norm. Peripheral vision characterizes

1. 
   visual acuity
2. 
   line of sight
3. 
   dark adaptation
4. 
   light adaptation

4. Cloudiness of the lens is called

1. 
   microphakia
2. 
   cataracts
3. 
   spherophakia
4. 
   myopia

5. Characteristic complaint with mature cataracts

1. 
   lack of object vision
2. 
   discharge from the eye
3. 
   improvement of previously reduced vision
4. 
   eye pain

6. Inflammation of the mucous membrane of the eye is called

1. 
   dacryocystitis
2. 
   conjunctivitis
3. 
   dacryoadenitis
4. 
   blepharitis

7. The nature of discharge from the eyes in diphtheria conjunctivitis

1. 
   filmy discharge with pus
2. 
   mucopurulent, purulent
3. 
   the colors of meat slop
4. 
   there is no discharge

8. The nature of the discharge during gonoblenorrhea

1. 
   cloudy with flakes
2. 
   mucopurulent, purulent
3. 
   the colors of meat slop
4. 
   lacrimation

9. Swelling of the eyelids with diphtheria conjunctivitis

1. 
   doughy
2. 
   "wooden", purple-bluish
3. 
   soft, hyperemic
4. 
   absent

10. Gonoblenorrhea of ​​the newborn, if infection occurred during the passage of the child through the birth canal, begins after birth

1. 
   on the 5th day
2. 
   in 2-3 days
3. 
   straightaway
4. 
   In 2 weeks

11. To prevent gonoblennorrhea, newborns are prescribed in the eyes (according to the order of 1963)

1. 
   0.25% chloramphenicol
2. 
   tetracycline ointment
3. 
   3% collargol
4. 
   furatsilina 1:5000

12. A binocular bandage is applied to the eye when

1. 
   conjunctivitis
2. 
   keratitis
3. 
   eye injury
4. 
   bleforitis

13. Diseases of the eyelids include

1. 
   dacryocystitis, dacryoadenitis
2. 
   blepharitis, stye, chalazion
3. 
   keratitis, conjunctivitis
4. 
   cataract, aphakia

14. Diseases of the lacrimal apparatus include

1. 
   dacryocystitis, dacryoadenitis
2. 
   blepharitis, stye, chalazion
3. 
   keratitis, conjunctivitis
4. 
   cataract, aphakia

15. The cause of stye is

1. 
   injury
2. 
   infection
3. 
   allergy
4. 
   anemia

16. Inflammation of the cornea is

1. 
   keratitis
2. 
   cyclite
3. 
   blepharitis

17. Sign of congenital glaucoma in a newborn

1. 
   strabismus
2. 
   increase in corneal size
3. 
   exophthalmos
4. 
   nystagmus

18. Intraocular pressure during penetrating eye injury

1. 
   does not change
2. 
   sharply increased
3. 
   downgraded
4. 
   slightly increased

19. In case of a penetrating injury to the eye, the patient must be administered parenterally

1. 
   administration of tetanus toxoid according to the regimen
2. 
   40% glucose solution
3. 
   25% magnesium sulfate solution
4. 
   1% nicotinic acid solution

20. Emergency care for eye burns with acid

1. 
   
2. 
   
3. 
   
4. 
   

21. Emergency care for eye burns with alkali

1. 
   rinse eyes with water for 10-20 minutes and 0.1% acetic acid solution
2. 
   rinse eyes with water for 10-20 minutes and 2% sodium bicarbonate solution
3. 
   drip a 30% solution of sodium sulfacyl into the conjunctival cavity and introduce an antibiotic ointment
4. 
   inject antibiotic ointment into the conjunctival cavity

22. Symptom characteristic of conjunctivitis

1. 
   swelling of the eyelids
2. 
   eyelid hyperemia
3. 
   pericornial vascular injection
4. 
   hyperemia of the conjunctival fornix

23. Symptom characteristic of keratitis

1. 
   purulent discharge from the conjunctival cavity
2. 
   hyperemia of the conjunctiva of the fornix
3. 
   infiltrate on the cornea
4. 
   feeling of a clogged eye

24. Sign of acute dacryocystitis

1. 
   conjunctival hyperemia
2. 
   photophobia
3. 
   purulent discharge from the upper and lower lacrimal openings
4. 
   clouding of the cornea of ​​the eye

25. In case of eye injuries, first of all it is necessary to instill the solution

1. 
   furatsilina 1: 5000
2. 
   30% sodium sulfacyl
3. 
   5% novocaine
4. 
   0.25% zinc sulfate

Clinical pharmacology

Choose the correct answer:

1.	Clinical pharmacology studies: mechanism of action of drugs Features of the interaction of drugs with the human body rules for writing prescriptions
2.	The term etiotropic pharmacotherapy refers to: pharmacotherapy aimed at preventing symptoms of the disease
3.	The term replacement pharmacotherapy refers to: pharmacotherapy aimed at eliminating symptoms of the disease
4.	The term symptomatic pharmacotherapy means: pharmacotherapy aimed at compensating for the lack of biologically active substances produced in the body pharmacotherapy aimed at eliminating symptoms of the disease pharmacotherapy aimed at eliminating the causes of the disease pharmacotherapy aimed at alleviating the patient's suffering
5.	The term prophylactic use of drugs means: pharmacotherapy aimed at compensating for the lack of biologically active substances produced in the body pharmacotherapy aimed at preventing the disease pharmacotherapy aimed at eliminating or limiting the pathological process pharmacotherapy aimed at eliminating the symptoms of the disease.
6.	The term palliative pharmacotherapy refers to: pharmacotherapy aimed at eliminating the cause of the disease pharmacotherapy aimed at compensating for the lack of biologically active substances produced in the body pharmacotherapy aimed at preventing the disease pharmacotherapy aimed at alleviating the patient's suffering
7.	Pharmacodynamics studies: features of drug withdrawal mechanisms of action of drugs drug absorption features features of drug distribution
8.	Pharmakinetics studies: mechanisms of action of drugs patterns of absorption, distribution, transformation, drug removal features of the interaction of drugs with receptors relationship between the chemical structure and biological activity of biologically active substances
9.	The term polypharmacy refers to: long-term treatment of a patient with one drug simultaneous prescription of several drugs to a patient the patient has several diseases
10.	The main goals of combination pharmacotherapy: increasing the effectiveness of treatment reducing the toxicity of a drug by prescribing it in smaller doses doses prevention and correction of drug side effects all answers are correct
11.	The mechanism of action of H2 histamine receptor blockers is based on their ability to block H2 histamine receptors in the stomach, resulting in: the production of hydrochloric acid by the basal cells of the stomach decreases microcirculation in the stomach wall improves a protective film is formed on the surface of the gastric mucosa
12.	H+,- K+ ATPase inhibitors include: pirenzepine lansoprazole, omeprazole misoprostol, sucralfate
13.	Medicines that inhibit the release of histamine and other allergy mediators are used for: relief of an attack of bronchial asthma 2. prevention of bronchial asthma attacks
14.	Inhalation forms of ß2 - short-acting adrenergic stimulants are used for: 1. treatment of bronchial asthma relief of bronchial asthma attacks bronchodilation before inhalation administration of other drugs for the treatment of bronchial asthma
15.	The tocolytic effect of ß 2 -adrenergic stimulants is realized in the form of: bronchodilation decreased tone of the pregnant uterus relaxation of the walls of blood vessels
16.	Medicinal product of the short nitroglycerin group actions: nitrolingual spray nitrong soustak nitroderm
17.	Side effect of nitroglycerin: arterial hypertension reflex tachycardia bronchospasm hypoglycemia
18.	Indications for the use of calcium channel blockers: arterial hypotension arterial hypertension glaucoma bronchial asthma
19.	Nitrate is used in the treatment of angina: lasix ranitidine monocinque hood
20.	The dose of the drug for elderly people should be: increased by 20% increased by 50% reduced by 20% reduced by 50%
21.	Children under 14 years of age are contraindicated: ampicillin oxacillin tetracycline erythromycin
22.	Patients with concomitant kidney pathology are contraindicated: aminoglycosides penicillins fluoroquinolones nitrofurans
23.	Patients with acoustic neuritis are contraindicated: ampicillin pefloxacin streptomycin erythromycin
24.	Has a bacteriostatic effect: tetracycline biseptol oxacillin penicillin
25.	Antimicrobial agent from the fluoroquinolone group: methicillin oxacillin pefloxacin erythromycin
26.	Antitussive drugs are indicated for: bronchiectasis purulent bronchitis pneumonia dry pleurisy
27.	Bronchodilators are indicated for: bronchial asthma tracheitis dry pleurisy foreign body in the trachea
28.	Has an anti-inflammatory effect: adrenalin Berotek intal salbutamol
29.	When treating opisthorchiasis use: ranitidine de-nol omeprozole praziquantel
30.	In the treatment of bronchial asthma, inhaled glucocorticosteroid: Asthmopent beclomethasone intal salbutamol
31.	Complications from inhaled use of glucocorticosteroids: oral candidiasis moon face steroid diabetes arterial hypertension
32.	For the prevention of oral candidiasis during inhalation use of glucocorticosteroids: rinse thoroughly do not eat for 1 hour do not drink liquids; drink 1 liter of water
33.	The following is not used for the treatment of status asthmaticus: intal berodual salbutamol prednisolone
34.	An antiarrhythmic drug is: lidocaine nitroglycerine pentamine baralgin
35.	The effect of nitroglycerin occurs in (minutes): 10-15 15-20 20-25
36.	Side effects of nitroglycerin: dilation of the coronary arteries increased blood pressure decreased blood pressure flatulence
37.	Drug of choice for relieving angina attacks is: nitroglycerine nitrong olicard monocinque
38.	Drug for thrombolytic therapy of myocardial infarction: heparin aspirin alteplase droperidol
39.	To carry out neuroleptanalgesia for myocardial infarction, the following is used: analgin, baralgin morphine, atropine fentanyl, droperidol aspirin, halidor
40.	An anticoagulant is used in the treatment of myocardial infarction direct action: atropine heparin morphine fental
41.	To improve the rheological properties of blood, it is used disaggregant: analgin acetylsalicylic acid morphine nitroglycerine
42.	Sign of heparin overdose: hematuria dysuria nocturia polyuria
43.	In the treatment of hypertension, an inhibitor is used APF: clonidine dibazole papaverine enalapril
44.	Diuretics are used in the treatment of hypertension means: anaprilin furosemide clonidine verapamil
45.	In the treatment of hypertension, β- adrenergic blocker: atenol Corinfar pentamine furosemide
46.	An antagonist is used in the treatment of hypertension calcium ions: verapamil captopril; clonidine furosemide
47.	In the treatment of hypertension the following is used: antibiotics, expectorants, mucolytics diuretics, ACE inhibitors, Ca antagonists, β- adrenergic blockers; glucocorticosteroids. non-steroidal anti-inflammatory facilities cytostatics, β-blockers, statins, desogregants.
48.	ACE inhibitor: oxprenolol isoptin captopril pentamine
49.	β - B - adrenergic blockers include: nitroglycerine; anaprilin; captopril nifedipine
50.	An antiatherosclerotic drug is: dibazole nitroglycerine papaverine simvastatin
51.	The use of thrombolytic therapy for myocardial infarction most effective: in 4 hours in 6 hours after 8 hours from the first hours.
52.	Thrombolytic therapy for myocardial infarction is carried out with Purpose: pain reduction temperature reduction increased blood pressure restrictions on the necrosis zone
53.	Defoamers are: antifomselan, ethyl alcohol; morphine, omnopon hypothiazide, furosemide validol, nitroglycerin
54.	When using hypothiazide, it is recommended to take the drug: bromine potassium gland fluoride
55.	When taking iron supplements, the stool becomes colored: white yellow green black
56.	Effective for Helicobacter pylori infection: amoxicillin; furosemide biseptol furagin
57.	When taking bismuth preparations, the stool turns the following color: white yellow green black
58.	When treating peptic ulcers, an antacid is used: almagel baralgin vikalin de-nol
59.	When treating peptic ulcers, an H2-histamine blocker is used: almagel platiphylline Venter famotidine.
60.	In the treatment of peptic ulcer, a proton inhibitor is used. pump: vikalin halidor omeprazole; festal
61.	A drug that forms a viscous paste in the stomach, selectively sticking to the ulcer: Maalox festal sucralfate gastrocepin
62.	Antacids are prescribed: while eating; 30 minutes before meals 10 minutes before meals 1.5-2.0 hours after eating
63.	Ranitidine is: analgesic antispasmodic antacid H2-histamine blocker
64.	Has an antiemetic effect: almagel de-nol omeprazole cerucal
65.	Side effects of atropine are: abdominal pain fever salivation dilated pupils
66.	A pancreatic enzyme inhibitor is: analgin Gordox panzinorm cerucal
67.	Intervention for acute pancreatitis: holosas interferon vikalin baralgin
68.	Enzyme preparations include: baralgin festal papaverine promedol
69.	For chronic pancreatitis, the following is used for replacement purposes: atropine vikalin kontrikal panzinorm
70.	Choleretic is: atropine vikalin Gordox oxafenamide
71.	Has an antispasmodic effect: analgin halidor panzinorm furosemide
72.	In the treatment of chronic glomerulonephritis, a glucocorticosteroid is used: nevigramon furazolidone ampicillin prednisolone
73.	In the treatment of diabetic coma, insulin acts: short average long acting
74.	For urticaria the drug is used: ampicillin suprastin biseptol furagin
75.	For Quincke's edema the following is used: ampicillin tavegil biseptol furagin
76.	Side effects of diphenhydramine: fever heartburn drowsiness constipation
77.	The majority of the daily dose of prednisolone should be given: in the morning In the evening for the night
78.	Side effects of glucocorticosteroids: hypotension bronchospasm hypoglycemia hyperglycemia
79.	When treating anaphylactic shock the following is used: adrenaline, prednisolone atropine, morphine clonidine, pentamine dopamine, lasix
80.	The antidote for an overdose of cardiac glycosides is: atropine bemegrid nalorphine unithiol

Life safety and disaster medicine.

Select the number of the correct answer:

1. The clinical form of acute radiation sickness, which develops with a radiation dose of 1 to 10 Gray, is called:

1. bone marrow

2. intestinal

3. toxemic

4. cerebral

2.The medical evacuation stage is called

1. 
   medical care organization system
2. 
   route along which the injured are evacuated
3. 
   place of assistance to victims, treatment and rehabilitation
4. 
   health care forces and means deployed along the evacuation routes for victims to carry out medical triage and provide medical care. assistance, treatment and preparation for further evacuation

3. In case of an accident with the release of chlorine into the atmosphere, it is necessary:

1. 
   put on a gas mask or a cotton-gauze bandage moistened with a 2% soda solution and climb up
2. 
   put on a gas mask or a cotton-gauze bandage soaked in a solution of citric or acetic acid and go down to the basement
3. 
   put on a gas mask or a cotton-gauze bandage soaked in 2% soda solution; I go down to the basement
4. 
   do not take any action until rescuers arrive

4. In the isolation phase it is carried out

1. first aid

2. first aid

3. first aid

4. qualified medical care

5. The optimal time for providing first aid is:

1. 12 hours

2. 30 minutes

3. 6 hours

6. Medical triage is:

1. 
   identifying those affected in need of emergency medical care
2. 
   distribution of the affected people in need of medical care and evacuation into groups
3. 
   method of distributing affected people in need of homogeneous treatment and prophylactic evacuation measures into groups
4. 
   method of distributing those affected by functional departments of the hospital

7. To disinfect water in emergency situations, the following is used:

1. cystamine

2. stagerazine

3. pantocid

4. perhydrol

8. Types of medical care provided at the pre-hospital stage in case of disasters:

1. any that can be used

2. qualified

3. first medical, pre-medical, first medical

4. specialized, qualified

9. A method of work that allows timely provision of medical care in case of mass influx of injured people:

1. rapid removal from the source of the disaster

2. provision of emergency assistance

3. clearly organized evacuation

4. medical triage

10. To protect the thyroid gland during accidents at radiation hazardous facilities, the following is used:

2. promedol

3. stagerazine

4. potassium iodide

11. A drug that can replace potassium iodide to protect the thyroid gland during radiation accidents

1. 5% iodine tincture

2. 0.5% solution of chlorhexidine bigluconate

3. 70% ethyl alcohol

4. 96% ethyl alcohol

12. Types of medical triage at the stages of medical evacuation

1. diagnostic

2. prognostic

3. internal

4. evacuation - transport, intrapoint

13. Collective means of protection

1. hospitals

2. civil defense formations

3. gas masks

4. shelters and shelters

14. Skin damage with detachment of the epidermis and the formation of blisters with light yellow contents is a thermal burn:

1. 1st degree

2. 2 degrees

3. 3 degrees

4. 4 degrees.

15. Aspiration of large amounts of water occurs:

1. 
   With asphyxial drowning
2. 
   For syncopal drowning
3. 
   In case of true drowning
4. 
   With cryo-shock

16. Characteristic symptom of chlorine poisoning

1. mydriasis

3. pain in the eyes

4. dysuria

17. Headache, heaviness in the head, tinnitus, pulsation in the temples, nausea, drowsiness are observed in case of poisoning:

1. 
   sulfuric acid
2. 
   carbon monoxide
3. 
   phosgene
4. 
   chlorine

18. In the area affected by ammonia, to protect the respiratory organs, you should wear a bandage moistened

1. ethyl alcohol

2. 5% acetic acid solution

3. 2% baking soda solution

4. 2% novocaine solution

19. Transportation of victims with pelvic fractures:

1. 
   On the shield, on the back, with a cushion under the lower back
2. 
   On the shield, on the back, with a cushion under the neck
3. 
   On a shield, on the back, with a bolster under the knees
4. 
   Half sitting

20. After warming, the skin is bluish-purple, blisters with bloody contents, a clear demarcation line occurs with frostbite:

1. 1st degree

2. 2 degrees

3. 3 degrees

4. 4 degrees

21. The victim complains of pain in the injured limb, thirst (no changes in urine) during the period:

1. compression

2. early period of decompression

3. intermediate period of decompression

4. late period of decompression

22. First aid for injury to the external carotid artery

1. finger pressure

2. applying a pressure airtight bandage

3. pain relief

4. stitching the wound

23.Immobilization in case of suspected injury to the cervical spine

1. Glisson loop

2. not required

3. cotton-gauze collar

4. sling bandage

24. Medical care is provided first of all:

1. finding body parts under the structure

2. burns 18%

3. presence of hazardous substances on the body

4. open hip fracture

25.Radionuclides accumulating in the thyroid gland:

1. radium-226

3. strontium-90

4. do not accumulate

26. Evacuation of the population in case of emergency is carried out according to

1. hemodynamic parameters

2. evacuation and sorting indicators

3. age indicators

4. availability of vehicles

27. An individual anti-chemical package is used to carry out partial

1. degassing

2. decontamination

3. deratization

4. disinfection

28. The Algover index is used to determine the severity of:

1. respiratory failure

2. radiation injuries

3. blood loss

4. comatose state

29. Diseases that most complicate rescue work in an emergency zone:

1. 
   Colds
2. 
   Particularly dangerous infections
3. 
   Cardiovascular diseases
4. 
   Diseases of the skin and subcutaneous tissue

Basics of rehabilitation

Select the number of the correct answer

1. Patient position during back massage:

1. 
   lying on your stomach, arms up;
2. 
   lying on your stomach, arms along your body;
3. 
   lying on your side;
4. 
   standing.

2. Indications for UHF therapy are:

1. 
   severe hypotension;
2. 
   adhesive process;
3. 
   acute inflammatory process;
4. 
   tendency to bleed.

3. Magnetic therapy device:

1. 
   IKV-4;
2. 
   Pole – 1;
3. 
   Rennet;
4. 
   Wave.

4. Contraindications for physical therapy are:

1. 
   serious condition of the patient;
2. 
   clubfoot;
3. 
   hypertension 1 degree;
4. 
   scoliosis.

5. Baths, indifferent for 5-7 minutes, have the following effect on the body:

1. 
   relaxing effect;
2. 
   tonic effect;
3. 
   regenerating effect;
4. 
   stimulating effect.

6. Contraindications to massage are:

1. 
   chronic pneumonia;
2. 
   thrombophlebitis;
3. 
   flat feet;
4. 
   osteochondrosis.

7. A set of measures aimed at restoring impaired body functions is:

1. 
   reformation;
2. 
   rehabilitation;
3. 
   translocation;
4. 
   transplantation.

8. Primary physical prevention is prevention:

1. 
   diseases;
2. 
   relapses;
3. 
   exacerbation of diseases;
4. 
   complications.

9. To obtain ultrasonic vibrations in the UZT-1.08F apparatus, use:

1. 
   magnetron;
2. 
   oscillatory circuit;
3. 
   piezoelectric effect;
4. 
   transformer.

10. Diadynamic therapy uses:

1. 
   direct current of low strength and low voltage;
2. 
   medium frequency alternating current;
3. 
   high-frequency alternating pulse current;
4. 
   constant pulse current low frequency.

11. Mucous membranes are irradiated with doses:

1. 
   small erythemal doses;
2. 
   medium erythema doses;
3. 
   suberythemal doses;
4. 
   large erythemal doses.

12. The active factor in the ultrasound therapy method is:

1. 
   pulse current;
2. 
   mechanical vibrations;
3. 
   D.C;
4. 
   alternating current.

13. Microwave treatment device:

1. 
   Pole -1;
2. 
   Luch-2;
3. 
   Iskra-1;
4. 
   UHF-66.

14. The mandatory air gap between the electrode and the patient’s body is used when:

1. 
   UHF therapy;
2. 
   electrophoresis;
3. 
   darsonvalization;
4. 
   diadynamic therapy.

15. Main groups of physical exercises in exercise therapy:

1. 
   gymnastic and sports-applied;
2. 
   health path;
3. 
   shaping;
4. 
   balance exercises.

16. To prevent rickets, the following is used:

1. 
   UHF therapy;
2. 
   general Ural Federal District;
3. 
   electrophoresis.

17. If there is an abrasion or scratch in the area where the electrodes are placed during galvanization, you must:

1. 
   cancel the procedure;
2. 
   carry out the procedure by treating the abrasion with iodine;
3. 
   carry out the procedure by isolating the abrasion with oilcloth;
4. 
   change the method of influence.

18. The body’s endurance can be trained by:

1. 
   breathing exercises;
2. 
   throwing the ball;
3. 
   isometric exercises.

19. Health path is:

1. 
   treatment with dosed ascent;
2. 
   walking on a stencil;
3. 
   walking in front of a mirror;
4. 
   walks on level ground.

20. Indications for physical therapy are:

1. 
   congenital muscular torticollis;
2. 
   gangrene;
3. 
   high fever;
4. 
   bleeding.

21. Corrective walking is used for:

1. 
   clubfoot;
2. 
   pneumonia;
3. 
   bronchitis;
4. 
   stomach ulcer.

22. It is more advisable to strengthen the erector spinae muscle:

1. 
   standing;
2. 
   sitting on the floor;
3. 
   lying on your stomach;
4. 
   lying on your back.

23. An auxiliary stroking technique is:

1. 
   ironing;
2. 
   pressing;
3. 
   flat stroking;
4. 
   embracing stroking.

24. The main kneading technique is:

1. 
   wallow;
2. 
   shifting;
3. 
   continuous kneading;
4. 
   shaking.

25. The formation of callus accelerates:

1. 
   stroking;
2. 
   trituration;
3. 
   kneading;
4. 
   vibration.

Economics and Health Management

1. Demographic policy in Russia assumes

1. increased fertility

2. Decrease in fertility

3. optimization of natural population growth

4. reduction in mortality

2. Institutions with a form of ownership are subject to accreditation and licensing

1. only state

3. private only

4. only municipal

3. A feature of the functions of nurses in specialized clinic rooms is

1. fulfilling doctor’s orders

2. Carrying out special medical and diagnostic procedures as directed by a doctor

3. preparing the doctor’s office to receive patients

4. sanitary education work

4. In Russia, until 1994, the healthcare system operated

1. insurance

2. private

3. state

4. mixed

5.Improving medical care to the population of the Russian Federation at the present stage is associated with the development :

1. inpatient care

2. medical science

3. rural health

4. Primary health care

6. A special feature of the children's clinic is the presence of:

1. specialized rooms

2. school and preschool department

3. departments of functional diagnostics

4. laboratories

7. The universal integrated indicator of population health is:

1. average life expectancy

2. fertility

3. mortality

4. natural increase/loss

8. Infant mortality is the mortality of children

1. up to 14 years old

2. up to 4 years

3. in the first year of life

4. in the first month of life

9. Indicators are subject to mandatory state registration

1. demographic (number of births, deaths)

2. morbidity

3. physical development

4. disability

10. The source of studying morbidity by appeal is

1. control chart of dispensary observation

2. medical record of an inpatient

4. certificate of incapacity for work

11. The main accounting document when studying morbidity with temporary disability

1. certificate of examination by the medical and social expert commission

2. outpatient medical record

3. statistical report of updated diagnoses

4. certificate of incapacity for work

12. The main cause of mortality is

1. gastrointestinal diseases

2. cardiovascular diseases

3. cancer

4. injuries, accidents, poisoning

13. The disability group is established:

1. Deputy Chief Physician for the examination of work capacity

2. clinical expert commission

3. medical and social expert commission

4. head of department

14. The purpose of accreditation of a medical institution:

1. protection of the interests of the consumer of medical services

2. determination of the scope of medical care

3. establishing compliance with quality standards of medical care

4. assessment of the degree of qualification of medical personnel

15. Clinical examination is a method

1. detection of acute and infectious diseases

2. active dynamic monitoring of the health status of certain groups for the purpose of early detection and improvement of patients

3. environmental monitoring

4. emergency assistance

16. The capacity of the hospital is determined

1. size of the population served

2. number of beds

3. number of medical workers

4. level of technical equipment

17. A document that is a guarantee of receiving free medical care under budgetary insurance medicine

1. passport

2. medical insurance policy

3. outpatient medical record

4. medical record of an inpatient

18.Medical and midwifery stations provide assistance

1. specialized medical

2. sanitary and anti-epidemic

3. pre-medical medical

4. social

19. Pediatric care is provided to children

1. medical and sanitary units

2. children's clinics and hospitals

3. children's educational institutions

4. Rospotrebnadzor centers

20. The task of primary prevention is

1. early diagnosis of diseases

2. prevention of relapses and complications

3. improving the environment

4. hygienic education of the population

21. Postgraduate training of medical personnel is carried out at least once

1. at 3 years old

2. at 5 years old

3. at 7 years old

4. at 10 years old

^ STANDARD ANSWERS

Nursing organization

1 -1, 2 -3, 3 -1, 4 -2, 5 -4, 6 -1.

Nursing process

18-06-2011, 04:38

Description

Anatomy and functions of the organ of vision

1. Eye examination, which must be checked in each person without touching the eye with your hands:
It is necessary to examine the condition and mobility of the eyelids, palpebral fissure, eyeball, the condition and transparency of the cornea, iris, and pupil area (dark).

2. Sequence of vision testing in children from birth to 4-6 months:
The reaction of the pupils to light, the reaction of short-term tracking of the movement of an object, the reaction of stable object tracking, the proboscis reaction to the nipple of the nurse's mammary gland, the reaction of short-term object fixation, the reaction of stable fixation, the reaction of recognition of close persons (toys).

3. The main openings of the orbit: superior and inferior orbital fissures, palpebral foramen.

4. Formations passing through the superior orbital fissure: III, IV and VI cranial nerves, first branch of the V (trigeminal) nerve, superior ophthalmic vein.

5. Formations passing through the ophthalmic opening: Optic nerve, ophthalmic artery.

6. Muscles that move the eye upward. Upper straight and lower oblique.

7. Muscles that move the eye downwards. Lower straight, upper oblique.

8. Muscles that move the eye inward. Internal, superior and inferior rectus muscles.

9. Muscles that move the eye outward. External straight and both oblique.

10. Location of the lacrimal gland: In the upper outer corner of the orbit, in the fossa for the lacrimal gland.

11. Sections of the lacrimal apparatus of the eye: Lacrimal stream, lacrimal lake, lacrimal puncta, lacrimal canaliculi, lacrimal sac, nasolacrimal duct.

12. Place where the nasolacrimal duct opens: Under the inferior turbinate.

13. Age at which the lacrimal gland begins to function: by 2 months.

14. Anteroposterior size of the eyeball of a newborn and adult. 16 mm and 24 mm.

15. Eye membranes: Eye capsule (cornea and sclera) and choroid (iris, ciliary body, choroid).
16. Diameter of the cornea of ​​a newborn and an adult: 9 mm and 11.5 mm.

17. Functions of the sclera: supporting, protective, formative.

18. Functions of the iris: Regulates the flow of light to the retina, takes part in ultrafiltration and outflow of intraocular fluid, thermoregulation, regulation of ophthalmotonus, accommodation.

19. Features of the pupil in children. In newborns, up to 2 mm, weakly reacts to light, and does not expand well with mydriatic agents.

20. Functions of the ciliary body: Formation and outflow of intraocular fluid, participation in the act of accommodation, in thermoregulation, regulation of ophthalmotonus.

21. The main function of the choroid itself: Nutrition of the retinal pigment epithelium.

22. Three neurons of the retina: 1st - rods and cones, 2nd - bipolar cells, 3rd - multipolar cells.

23. The most important structures of the retina: Pigment epithelium, rod and cone layer, outer and inner nuclear layer, ganglion layer, nerve fiber layer.

24. Features of the structure of the macula area of ​​a newborn and a person after 6 months: A newborn in the macula area has all 10 layers of the retina, and a 6-month-old and an adult have 4-5 layers.

25. Location, number and functions of cones: 6-7 million in the macula, provide sharpness and color vision.

26. Location, number and functions of sticks. 125-130 million from the macula to the dentate line, provide light perception and peripheral vision.

27. Photosensitive elements of the retina. Pigment epithelium, rods and cones.

28. Retinal power sources. Central retinal artery and choriocapillaris layer of the choroid.

29. Structure and functions of the optic nerve. The optic nerve consists of processes of retinal ganglion cells and is a conductor of visual impulses from the retina.

30. Topographic sections of the optic nerve. Intraocular (optic disc), intraorbital, intraosseous and intracranial.

31. Divisions of the visual pathway. Optic nerve, chiasm, optic tract, subcortical visual centers, optic radiation (Graziole bundle), cortical visual centers.

32. Localization of subcortical visual centers. Lateral geniculate bodies.

33. Localization and functions of cortical visual centers. Occipital lobe, area of ​​the avian spur furrow (Brodmann areas 17-19). Formation of visual images.

34. Transparent structures of the eye. Cornea, moisture of the anterior and posterior chambers, lens, vitreous body.

35. The value of the anterior chamber angle. The main route of outflow of intraocular fluid.

36. Age-related features of the depth of the anterior chamber. With age, it deepens from 1.5 to 3.5 mm.

37. Topography of the lens. Located behind the iris in front of the vitreous body.

38. Lens retaining apparatus. Zinn's ligaments, vitreous recess, iris.

39. Basic functions of the lens. Light transmission, light refraction, participation in the act of accommodation.

40. Composition and functions of the vitreous body. 98% water, collagen. Supporting, protective, light transmission.

41. Nutrition of the transparent structures of the eyes. Intraocular fluid.

42. Structures of the eye that do not have sensory nerve endings. Choroid, retina.

43. Innervation of the eye and its appendages. All cranial nerves and sympathetic innervation.

44. Blood supply to the eye. Branches of the internal carotid artery.

Visual acuity

1. Three main factors determining high normal visual acuity:
a) the normal state and structure of the fovea - the density and size of the cone elements in it;
b) normal state of the visual pathways;
c) normal state of subcortical and cortical visual centers.
2. The most common normal visual acuity. 1.0.
3. The most common limit of visual acuity in healthy people. 2.0.
4. The distance from which visual acuity is determined using tables and the rationale for this. Visual acuity is determined from 5 m, since from this distance the strokes of the letters of the 10th line are visible, which corresponds to 1.0 vision.
5. Estimated visual acuity in newborns. Thousandths of a unit.
6. Explanation of low visual acuity in the first months of a child’s life. Incomplete formation of the central fovea, functional imperfection of the pathways, subcortical and cortical visual centers.
7. The formula by which visual acuity is calculated if it is below 0.1.
Vis = d/D, where d is the distance from which the patient sees the 1st row of the table; D is the distance from which a person with normal vision should see the 1st line.
8. Methods for determining visual acuity in children 6-12 months. By recognizing toys at different distances, taking into account their sizes, by the reaction of tracking the movement of distant objects.
9. The principle on which the objective study of visual acuity is based. Optokinetic nystagmus.
10. Three types of movements that the eye makes to perceive surrounding objects:
a) tremor, b) drift, c) jumps.
11. Complete blindness and everyday blindness. Complete blindness - lack of even light perception, equal to 0. Everyday blindness - visual acuity below 0.03 with any optical correction in the better eye.
12. The most common causes leading to blindness at present. CNS lesions (congenital, acquired eye damage, glaucoma, malignant myopia, hereditary diseases).
13. Methods for detecting feigned blindness and aggravation of reduced vision.
Simulation of complete blindness is detected by the reaction of the pupils to light. Aggravation of reduced vision is most often detected when studying visual acuity with Polyak optotypes from different distances. The most accurate method is an objective determination of visual acuity based on optokinetic nystagmus.

Color vision

1. Elements of the retina that perceive color (tone). Cones.
2. Methods for testing color vision. According to Rabkin's table, on an anomaloscope, on a mosaic, on floss threads (vowel and silent).
3. Possible causes of color vision impairment. Congenital (color blindness) and acquired due to diseases of the retina, optic nerve, central nervous system, and the use of certain medications.
4. Name of red, green and purple color blindness. Protanopia, deuteranopia, tritanopia.
5. Primary colors from which any range of tones is created. Red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet.
6. Criteria by which color vision is characterized. Hue, lightness, saturation.
7. The essence of the theory of 3-component color vision and its author. All colors can be formed, according to Lomonosov, with different combinations of red, green and blue.
8. Frequency of occurrence of color vision anomalies. Color anomalies occur in 5% of males, and among females - 100 times less often.
9. Criteria by which a colorblind person can distinguish strawberries among green leaves. By brightness, but not by tone (color).
10. Timing of the beginning of the formation of color vision. Early childhood (in parallel with the formation of visual acuity. Cones).
11. Colors of balls that should be in the center of garlands hung for children in strollers. There should be red, orange, yellow, green in the center.
12. Necessary colors of toys for small children. Red, green, orange, yellow, green, blue.

Peripheral vision

1. Methods for studying peripheral vision:
a) control; b) indicative; c) perimetric; campimetric.
2. Average normal boundaries of the visual field in children 7-15 years old. On the inside 55°, on the outside 90°, on top 50°, on the bottom 65°.
3. The difference in the size of the visual field in children and adults. In adults it is 10° wider.
4. Conditions necessary for studying the visual field using the control method. The location of the doctor and the patient opposite each other at a distance of 0.5 m on the same level. Immobility of the examined eye, fixation of the researcher's stationary eye, turning off the opposite healthy eye with the hand, knowledge of the boundaries of the researcher's field of vision.
5. Localization of retinal damage due to nasal narrowing of the visual field. In the temporal region.
6. Localization of retinal damage with temporal narrowing of the visual field. In the internal department.
7. Loss of visual fields due to damage to the right optic tract. The left halves of the visual fields are homonymous left-sided hemianopsia.
8. Areas in the fundus that constantly give rise to physiological scotomas in healthy individuals. Optic disc and retinal vessels.
9. The importance of examining the visual field in a child. Helps judge damage to the retina, visual
pathways and visual centers in case of damage, tumors, etc.
10. Changes in the visual field, characteristic of glaucoma. Narrowing of the field of view on the nasal side.
11. The nature of the narrowing of the visual field in retinal pigmentary dystrophy. Concentric narrowing.
12. Localization of the pathological process when homonymous hemianopia is detected. In the optic tract.
13. Localization of the pathological process when heteronymous hemianopsia is detected. In the area of ​​the chiasm.

Refraction

1. Definition of the concept of physical refraction. Refractive power of the lens.
2. The magnitude of the physical refraction of the refractive media of the eye of a newborn and an adult. In a newborn it is 77.0-80.0, in an adult - 60.0 D.
3. Two main refractive media of the eye. Cornea, lens.
4. Dynamics of changes in the refractive power of the optical system of the eye. Decreases with age.
5. The magnitude of the refractive power of the cornea of ​​a newborn and an adult. In a newborn up to 60 D, in an adult up to 40 D.
6. The magnitude of the refractive power of the lens of a newborn and an adult. In a newborn up to 30 D, in an adult about 20 D.
7. Definition of the concept of clinical refraction. The relationship between the optical power of refractive media and the length of the axis of the eye.

8. Types of clinical refraction. Emmetropia, myopia, hypermetropia.
9. The most common type and strength of clinical refraction in newborns due to cycloplegia. Farsightedness within 4 diopters.
10. Type and strength of clinical refraction in newborns without cycloplegia. Myopia 2 - 4 diopters.
11. Place of posterior main focus in persons with emmetropia. On the retina.
12. Location of the posterior main focus in persons with hypermetropia. Behind the retina (in negative space).
13. Location of the posterior main focus in persons with myopia. In front of the retina.
14. Definition of the concept of a further point of view of a clear view. The point at which the eye is set at rest.
15. Location of the further point of clear vision in persons with emmetropia. At infinity (about 5 m).
16. Location of the further point of clear vision in persons with myopia and hypermetropia. In persons with myopia, it is in front, and with hyperopia, it is behind the retina.
17. Type and strength of clinical refraction at a further point of clear vision at a distance of 2 m. Myopia 2.0 D.
18. Optical properties of glasses that correct vision in myopes, their Latin name. Scattering, reducing (concave, concave).
19. Type of glasses used to correct the vision of farsighted people, their Latin name. Collective (convex, convexe).
20. Methodology for subjective determination of clinical refraction. Good near vision and poor distance vision is myopic; on the contrary, it is hypermetropic.
21. Types of complications that occur more often in children with high uncorrected farsightedness. Strabismus, amblyopia, asthenopia.
22. Possible changes in the eye with high axial myopia. Elongation of the eye, destruction of the vitreous body, parapillar vascular atrophy, hemorrhages and degenerative changes in the macular area and on the periphery of the retina.
23. Judging myopia by its magnitude. Up to 3 diopters - low, 3.25-6.0 - average; 6.25 or more - high.
24. Determination of the rate of progression of myopia over a year. Up to 1 diopter - slowly, 1 diopter and more - fast.
25. Characteristics of myopia by origin. Axial (increased anteroposterior, sagittal size), optical (increased refractive power of the cornea, lens).
26. Determination of myopia by localization of morphological changes. Peridiscal, choroidal, chorioretinal, vitreal, etc. (peripheral, mixed).
27. Judgment of the stage of myopia by sagittal size or myopic cone (periodiscal). Initial - the sagittal size is increased by 2 mm against the age norm, and the myopic cone = 1/4 of the disc (nipple); developed - by 3 mm and 1/2 disk, respectively;
far advanced - 4 mm or more than 1/2 of the optic nerve head.
28. Determination of the degree of vision loss under conditions of maximum optical correction of myopia. Decreased vision to 0.5 - the first, to 0.3 - the second, to 0.08 - the third, below 0.08 - the fourth.
29. Possible changes in uncorrected myopia. Strabismus, often divergent; Amblyopia, asthenopia.
30. An example of a diagnosis of myopia. Myopia of both eyes is congenital, average, rapidly progressing, axial-parapapillary, developed, second degree in vision.
31. Methods of treating myopia. Medication (vitamins and other drugs that improve trophism of the eye, drugs that reduce spasm - accommodation tension, drugs that permanently affect the sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation of the eye, etc.), surgical (adequate scleroplasty, keratotomy, keratomileusis), reflexology.
32. Changes in clinical refraction with age. Hypermetropia present in newborns gradually decreases; by 12-14 years, emmetropia is established (mostly!).
33. Causes of myopia in children. Unfavorable hygienic conditions when performing visual loads, weakness of the accommodative muscle, family history, pregnancy pathology, etc.
34. Age period at which children should be examined to identify refractive errors. Up to 1 year, but better by 6 months, taking into account family history.
35. Age at which glasses should be prescribed to a child with refractive error. From 6 months of age.
36. The age at which “school” myopia most often occurs. 10-14 years old.
37. Prevention of myopia. Formation, starting from the antenatal clinic - maternity hospital - clinic, prevention (“risk”) groups. Physical strengthening of the child, creation of optimal sanitary and hygienic conditions when working at close range, use of large bright toys.
38. Correction of myopia for distance and near. Full or increasing vision up to 0.7-0.8 for distance, for work 2-2.5 D lower than for distance.
39. Definition of astigmatism. The presence of different clinical refraction along mutually perpendicular meridians.
40. Three ways to determine the type and degree of astigmatism. Skiascopy, refractometry, ophthalmometry.
41. Method for correcting astigmatism. Cylindrical glasses, hard contact lenses, laser and other operations.
42. Features of cylindrical glass. Refracts only those rays that fall perpendicular to the axis of the glass.
43. Definition of anisometropia. Uneven refraction of both eyes.
44. Definition of aniseikonia. Uneven size of images on the retinas of both eyes.
45. The permissible difference in the correction of one and the other eye in children and adults and the rationale for this. In children up to 6.0 D, in adults up to 3.0 D. With a larger difference, aniseikonia occurs.
46. ​​Dimensions you need to know to prescribe glasses. The distance between the pupils, the length of the temples, the height of the nose.
47. Method for determining the distance between the centers of the pupils. Using a ruler.
48. Outcome of prolonged uncorrected anisometropia and aniseikonia. Disorder or inability to develop binocular vision, amblyopia, strabismus.

Ophthalmoscopy and skiascopy

1. Definition of the concept of “skiascopy”. Determination of clinical refraction by the movement of the shadow in the pupil area when the skiascope moves.
2. Cycloplegics used to determine clinical refraction.
1% solution of atropine sulfate, 0.25% solution of scopolamine hydrobromide, 1% solution of homatropine hydrobromide.
3. Subjective method for determining clinical refraction. Checking visual acuity by inserting alternately positive and negative glasses at 0.5 D for near and far.
4. Conditions necessary for skiascopy. Achieving paralysis of accommodation or short-term mydriasis in the patient.
5. Methods for examining the fundus. Reverse ophthalmoscopy, direct ophthalmoscopy, biomicroscopy.
6. Advantages of direct ophthalmoscopy compared to reverse ophthalmoscopy.
Higher magnification and better visibility of fundus details.
7. Common diseases in children in which changes in the fundus are observed.
Diabetes mellitus, nephritis, blood diseases, hypertension, toxoplasmosis.
8. A general disease in which a “star figure” may appear in the macular area of ​​the retina. Chronic glomerulonephritis.
9. A type of ametropia in which the fundus can. changes appear. High myopia.
10. A disease in which pigmentation in the form of bone bodies is detected in the fundus of the eye. Retinal pigmentary dystrophy.
11. Changes observed in the fundus with stagnant disc.
Swelling of the optic disc, an increase in its size, blurred contours, dilated veins, hemorrhage.
12. Changes in the fundus, characteristic of optic neuritis. Hyperemia of the optic nerve head, edema, exudation, blurriness of its contours, dilatation of retinal veins, hemorrhages.
13. Difference between a congestive disc and optic neuritis by changes in visual functions. With neuritis - a rapid and significant decrease in vision and a narrowing of the visual field; with a stagnant disc, visual functions may not change for a long time.
14. Final outcomes of neuritis and congestive disc. Optic nerve atrophy.
15. Fundus picture of optic nerve atrophy. Disc blanching, retinal vasoconstriction.
16. Fundus picture of Coats disease. Yellowish foci of exudation in the retina, vasodilatation, aneurysms, hemorrhages.
17. Fundus picture of retrolental fibroplasia. In the vitreous body there are whitish connective tissue strands and vessels. Visible areas of the retina are whitish-grayish in color with newly formed vessels.
18. Fundus picture of congenital syphilis. The optic disc is pale. Along the periphery of the fundus there are many small pinpoint clumps of pigment, alternating with whitish spots (“salt and pepper”).

Accommodation

1. Definition of the concept of accommodation. Adaptation of the visual apparatus to viewing objects at different distances from the eye.
2. Units of measurement of force, length of accommodation. Diopter, centimeter.
3. Structures that take the main part in the act of accommodation. Ciliary muscle, lens.
4. Changes in the state of the eye during accommodation. Tension of the ciliary body, relaxation of the zonules of cinnamon, increased curvature of the lens, narrowing of the pupil, decreased depth of the chamber.
5. The difference in the magnitude of the cost of accommodation in persons with emmetropia, myopia and hypermetropia with the same location of objects from the eye. In persons with emmetropia, the expenditure of force (length, volume) of accommodation is normal, in persons with hyperopia - large, in persons with myopia - minimal or absent.
6. Definition of the concept of the nearest point of clear vision. The minimum distance at which the objects in question are visible at maximum stress of accommodation.
7. Definition of the concept of a further point of view. The greatest distance at which the objects in question are clearly visible when accommodation is relaxed.
8. The nature of the change in the further point of view of clear vision during accommodation. Approaching.
9. The measure of the participation of convergence in the act of accommodation. Convergence limits accommodation and reduces its tension.
10. Definition of the concept of convergence. Bringing together the visual axes of the eye to a fixed object.
11. Unit of measurement of convergence. Metroangle: 1 metroangle of convergence corresponds to viewing an object at a distance of 1 m.
12. Emmetropic convergence force when working at a distance of 25 cm. 4 metroangles.
13. The nature of the relationship between accommodation and convergence. They change in parallel. A change in accommodation by 1 D corresponds to a change in convergence by 1 metroangle.
14. Signs of tension (spasm) of accommodation. Deterioration of vision, mainly in the distance, visual fatigue, myopization.
15. Causes of spasm of accommodation in childhood. Uncorrected ametropia, non-compliance with the visual load regime, general weakening of the body.
16. Signs of paralysis of accommodation. Impossibility of near vision, visual impairment in persons with hypermetropia.
17. The most common causes of paralysis of accommodation in childhood. Diphtheria, food intoxication (botulism), atropine poisoning, belladonna.
18. The nature of changes in clinical refraction during spasm and paralysis of accommodation in persons with emmetropia. During spasm, refraction increases, myopia occurs, and during paralysis, false myopia disappears.
19. The nature of changes in the position of the nearest point of clear vision and accommodation with age. With age, the closest point moves away from the eye and accommodation weakens.
20. Definition of presbyopia. Decrease in the volume of accommodation with age.
21. Cause of presbyopia. Loss of elasticity of the lens due to a change in its physicochemical composition and the formation of a nucleus.
22. Time (age) of the onset of presbyopia in persons with emmetropia. 40 years (more often).
23. Selection of reading glasses for a patient with hyperopia equal to 1 D at the age of 50 years. 2D + 1D = 3D.
24. Selection of reading glasses for a patient with emmetropia at 60 years old. ZD.
25. Selection of reading glasses for a patient with myopia equal to 1.5 D at the age of 60 years. 3D - 1.5D = 1.5 D.

Binocular vision

1. Definition of the concept of binocular vision. A visual function consisting in the ability to merge images from the retinas of both eyes into a single cortical image.
2. Three types of human vision. Monocular, simultaneous, binocular.
3. The essence of binocular vision. The ability to see the volume of an object, evaluate the position of the object in relation to oneself (i.e., in width, height, depth and physically, volumetrically).
4. Characteristics and localization of identical retinal points. Points located in the left or right halves of the retinas at the same distance from the central fossa, along one meridian, aligned when the retinas of both eyes are superimposed.
5. Characteristics and localization of retinal disparate points. Points that do not coincide when the retinas of the right and left eyes are superimposed (the inner half of one eye on the temporal half of the other), located at different distances from the central fossa.
6. Causes of physiological double vision. Irritation of disparate points of the retina.
7. Time of appearance of binocular fixation in the child. 1.5-2 months
8. Three basic conditions necessary for the implementation of binocular vision. Correct eye position, visual acuity of the worse eye is at least 0.3, absence of significant degrees of anisometropia.
9. The age at which binocular vision is formed. 2-3 years.
10. Diseases in which binocular vision is impaired. Strabismus, cataracts, diseases leading to a sharp decrease in vision in one of the eyes.
11. Methods for training binocular vision. Games for combining identical pictures, and then merging exercises using a synoptophore, mirror stereoscope, cheiroscope.
12. Methods (tests) for detecting binocular vision. Test with a miss, test with a hole in the palm, test with a finger shifting the eye.

Strabismus

1. General definition of strabismus. Strabismus is the deviation of one of the eyes from the joint point of fixation with impaired binocular vision.
2. Primary eye deviation angle. The angle of deviation of more often (or one) squinting eye is called primary.
3. Secondary eye deviation angle. The angle of deviation of the fixating eye is often called secondary.
4. Signs of concomitant strabismus:
a) full eye mobility; b) equality of the primary and secondary deflection angles; c) absence of double vision and dizziness.
5. Signs of paralytic strabismus:
a) restriction of eye mobility towards the affected muscle; b) the secondary angle of strabismus is greater than the primary one; c) double vision (diplopia); d) dizziness; e) ocular torticollis.
6. Possible changes in muscle function with convergent concomitant strabismus. With convergent strabismus, the adductor muscles may be strengthened and the abductor muscles may be weakened.
7. Possible changes in muscle strength with divergent strabismus. With divergent strabismus, the abductor muscles may be strengthened and the adductor muscles may be weakened.
8. General definition of accommodative strabismus. Strabismus caused by a violation of the relationship between accommodation and convergence.
9. Sequence of treatment of accommodative strabismus:
a) prescription of glasses;
b) treatment of possible amblyopia (pleoptics);
c) restoration and strengthening of binocular vision (orthoptics - diploptics).
10. Sequence of treatment of non-accommodative strabismus:
a) pleoptics and orthoptics;
b) surgery on the extraocular muscles (when the child understands exercises on the machines well);
c) orthoptics - diploptics.
11. Causes of non-accommodative strabismus. Non-accommodative strabismus can be caused by a violation of the motor and sensory functions of the eye.
12. Simple accessible methods for studying muscle function:
a) study of adduction (adduction);
b) study of abduction (abduction).
13. Indicators of normal eye mobility in the horizontal direction:
a) when the eyeball is adducted, the inner edge of the pupil reaches the level of the lacrimal openings;
b) when the eyeball is abducted, the external limbus should reach the external commissure of the eyelids.
14. Indicators underlying the classification of concomitant strabismus:
a) cause (primary, secondary);
b) consistency;
c) friendliness (paralysis);
d) state of accommodation;
e) one- or two-sidedness (alternation);
f) direction of deviation;
g) presence of amblyopia;
h) type and magnitude of refraction.
15. Devices for fixing binocular vision:
a) mirror stereoscope; b) cheyroscope;
c) synoptophore; d) reading grid.
16. General definition of amblyopia. Decreased vision as a result of functional inactivity without visible morphological changes in the eye.
17. Severity of amblyopia:
a) very weak (0.8-0.9); b) weak (0.7-0.5); c) average (0.4-0.3); d) high (0.2-0.05); e) very high (0.04 and below).
18. Characteristics of alternating strabismus. Alternating deviation of each eye from the joint fixation point.
19. Characteristics of monolateral strabismus. Permanent squint of one eye.
20. Type and duration of strabismus, in which amblyopia most often occurs. Monolateral long-term strabismus.
21. Methods and duration of treatment for amblyopia. Correction of ametropia with glasses, direct occlusion, irritation by light of the retina, “curly” highlights of the macula, visual load for 4-6 months for farsighted people.
22. Devices for the restoration and development of binocular vision:
a) exercises for combining identical pictures; b) mirror stereoscope (fusion exercises);
c) cheiroscope (fusion exercises); d) synoptophore (merging exercises); e) convergence trainer; e) muscle trainer.
23. Institutions where amblyopia is eliminated. Specialized kindergartens and security offices
vision of children, specialized sanatoriums, home conditions.
24. Reasons that do not allow the development of binocular vision: a) difference in visual acuity over 0.7;
b) residual strabismus angle of 5 degrees or more; c) anisometropia; d) aniseikonia; e) a sharp weakening of convergence and accommodation.
25. Duration and conditions (location) of orthoptic treatment until binocular vision is restored. Treatment aimed at restoring binocular vision is carried out in eye institutions and at home for 6-12 months.
26. Principles, methods, timing and outcomes of treatment of paralytic strabismus. Conservative treatment for a year, plastic surgery. The outcomes are unsatisfactory.
27. Methods for determining the angle of strabismus. Determination of the angle of strabismus using the Hirschberg method, on the perimeter, synoptophore.
28. Operations that weaken the muscle. Recession, tenomyoplasty, partial myotomy, etc.
29. Operations that strengthen the muscle. Prorrhaphy, tenorrhaphy.

Pathology of the eyelids and lacrimal organs

1. Types of anomalies in the development and position of the eyelids:
a) ankyloblepharon; b) microblepharon; c) coloboma of the eyelids; d) blepharophimosis; e) inversion of the lower eyelid; e) inversion of the eyelids; g) epicanthus; h) ptosis.
2. Four congenital changes of the eyelids requiring the administration of ointments, the application of adhesive plaster and emergency operations in newborns: 1) coloboma of the eyelids; 2) ankyloblepharon; 3) entropion of the eyelid; 4) eversion of the eyelid.
3. Phenomena that may occur if volvulus, eversion and coloboma of the eyelids are not operated on. Dystrophic keratitis.
4. Names of four inflammatory processes in the eyelid area:
1) blepharitis; 2) barley; 3) chalazion; 4) molluscum contagiosum.
5. Five types of blepharitis:
1) simple; 2) scaly; 3) corner; 4) ulcerative; 5) meibomian.
6. Possible factors contributing to the occurrence of blepharitis. Unfavorable sanitary and hygienic conditions, scrofulosis, chronic diseases of the gastrointestinal tract, helminthic infestations and fungal infections, diseases of the lacrimal ducts, anemia, vitamin deficiency, uncorrected refractive errors.
7. Method of treating blepharitis. Degreasing the ciliary edge of the eyelids and lubricating with an alcohol solution of brilliant green, antibiotic ointment and epilation of eyelashes.
8. Main signs and outcome of barley. Swelling, redness, pain, induration, and then abscessation, ulceration and scarring.
9. Method of treating barley. Inside: sulfonamide drugs; Locally: at the beginning of the disease, cauterization with alcohol, ether, an alcohol solution of brilliant green, dry heat, UHF.
10. Symptoms of chalazion. Hyperemia, swelling, local compactions with distinct contours in the area of ​​the meibomian gland.
11. Treatment method for chalazion. Gentle eyelid massage with antibiotic ointments, yellow mercury ointment, and if ineffective, surgical removal or injection of corticosteroids into the chalazion.
12. Signs of molluscum contagiosum. On the skin of the face, eyelids, more often in the area of ​​the inner corner, yellowish-white nodules up to 2 mm in size appear with oval edges and a small depression in the center.
13. Treatment method for molluscum contagiosum. Excision of the nodule within healthy tissue, followed by cauterization of the bed with an alcohol solution of brilliant green, iodine tincture, etc.
14. Possible changes in the eyelids with facial paralysis. Lagophthalmos (hare's eye).
15. Symptoms of ptosis of the upper eyelid. Drooping of the upper eyelid, its almost complete immobility, narrowing of the palpebral fissure, “stargazer's head.”
16. Severity of ptosis. Ptosis of the first degree is the covering of the upper third of the cornea with the eyelid, the second degree is covering half of the cornea and the visual zone, the third degree is covering more than half of the cornea and the visual zone.
17. Indications and types of treatment for ptosis. The first degree does not require treatment; second degree - for the first 2 years, lifting the eyelid with an adhesive plaster during wakefulness, and then at 2-3 years - surgery; third degree - adhesive plaster for up to 1 year, then surgery.
18. The influence of prolonged and severe ptosis on visual acuity and eye position. Ptosis causes amblyopia, strabismus, nystagmus, and cosmetic defects.
19. Components of the lacrimal duct. Lacrimal stream, lacrimal lake, lacrimal puncta, lacrimal canaliculi, lacrimal sac, nasolacrimal duct.
20. Diseases in which inflammation of the lacrimal gland may develop. Measles, scarlet fever, mumps, typhoid fever, rheumatism, tonsillitis, influenza.
21. Main signs of dacryoadenitis. Swelling, redness and pain in the area of ​​the lacrimal gland, the upper eyelid takes on an S-shape, the palpebral fissure narrows unevenly, the eyeball shifts and double vision appears, body temperature rises, headache.
22. Treatment method for dacryoadenitis. Anesthetics, analgesics, antibiotics and sulfonamide drugs orally, physiotherapy (dry heat, UHF, diathermy, ultraviolet irradiation in the area of ​​the lacrimal gland), washing the mucous membrane with heated antiseptic solutions, applying ointment with sulfonamide drugs and antibiotics.
23. Symptoms and treatment of trichiasis. Blepharospasm, lacrimation, eyelashes turned towards the cornea. Removal of eyelashes (epilation) is indicated.
24. Cardinal signs of dacryocystitis in newborns. Lacrimation, lacrimation, when pressing on the area of ​​the lacrimal sac, mucous or purulent contents are squeezed out of the lacrimal openings. Negative Vesta tests, X-ray data.
25. Complications of untreated dacryocystitis. Phlegmon of the lacrimal sac with the formation of fistulas, corneal ulcer.
26. Method of treatment of dacryocystitis. A jerky massage of the lacrimal sac area followed by rinsing it for 3 days, and if ineffective, probing the nasolacrimal duct. If unsuccessful, subsequent daily squeezing of the contents of the lacrimal sac and rinsing with antiseptics. By 1.5-2 years of age, surgery is dacryocystorhinostomy.
27. Tumors of the eyelids in children requiring surgery in the first year of life.
Hemangiomas, lymphangiomas, neurofibromas, dermoids.

Conjunctivitis

1. The main four functions of the conjunctiva: 1) protective; 2) moisturizing; 3) nutritious; 4) suction.
2. Innervation of the conjunctiva. Nerve endings from the first and second branches of the trigeminal nerve.
3. Complaints of patients with conjunctivitis. Photophobia, pain, lacrimation and suppuration, foreign body sensation, itching, eyelid sticking after sleep, eyelid swelling, hemorrhages, follicles, films.
4. Common infections that cause conjunctivitis. Diphtheria, chicken pox, measles, scarlet fever, adenovirus infection.
5. General symptoms that occur in patients with conjunctivitis. Disturbed sleep, appetite, headache, catarrhal symptoms, increased body temperature, enlarged and painful parotid and cervical lymph nodes.
6. The most common causative agents of conjunctivitis. Staphylococcus, pneumococcus.
7. Methods for studying the conjunctiva. Side and combined lighting; eversion of the eyelids, biomicroscopy, general examination.
8. The most common picture of epidemic Koch-Wicks conjunctivitis, its duration and contagiousness. General catarrhal phenomena, increased body temperature, acute onset, the appearance of roll-shaped edema of the conjunctiva in the area of ​​transitional folds, petechial hemorrhages, ischemic white areas of the conjunctiva of a triangular shape with the base towards the limbus in the area of ​​the palpebral fissure, copious mucopurulent discharge. Very contagious. Lasts 2 weeks.
9. Three forms of pneumococcal conjunctivitis. Sharp, pseudomembranous, tear-producing.
10. Clinical picture of pseudomembranous conjunctivitis. Subacute onset, most often gray “plaques” form on the conjunctiva of the eyelids; after their removal, the conjunctiva does not bleed. Occurs in weakened children.
11. Signs of tear conjunctivitis. The disease appears in the first weeks of life in the form of bilateral conjunctivitis with hyperemia, edema and significant lacrimation, while the lacrimal gland is not yet functioning.
12. Cardinal signs of gonoblennorrheal conjunctivitis. On the 2-3rd day after birth, there is pronounced swelling of the eyelids and conjunctiva, copious watery and then purulent discharge, hemorrhages and swelling of the conjunctiva.
13. The main characteristic symptoms of diphtheria conjunctivitis. Acute onset, severe general condition, dense bluish swelling of the eyelids, mild hyperemia of the conjunctiva in combination with ischemic edema, serous-bloody discharge, hemorrhages, necrotic films, scars.
14. Complications arising from gonoblenorrheic and diphtheria conjunctivitis. Keratitis, purulent ulcer, corneal perforation, endophthalmitis.
15. Methods for the prevention of gonoblennorrhea in newborns: 1) single installation of a 2% lapis solution; 2) instillation of penicillin solution (25,000 units in 1 ml) or 30% sodium sulfacyl solution 3-5 times within 10 minutes.
16. The main signs of adenopharyngoconjunctival fever (AFCL). Against the background of pharyngitis and fever, swelling and hyperemia of the conjunctiva occur, follicles appear, sometimes films are formed that are not associated with the underlying tissue, and scanty mucous discharge is formed.
17. Leading signs of epidemic adenoviral follicular keratoconjunctivitis. General malaise, fever, regional lymphadenitis, conjunctival hyperemia, follicles, papillae, scanty mucous discharge, subepithelial infiltrates in the cornea.
18. The main signs of spring conjunctivitis (catarrh). More often in places with a hot climate, schoolchildren are predominantly affected by the mucous membrane of the upper eyelid in the form of a “cobblestone pavement”, thread-like mucous secretion, visual fatigue, itching, and swelling of the eyelids appear.
19. Some factors that play a role in the origin of follicular infectious-allergic conjunctivitis. Disorders of the gastrointestinal tract; helminthic infestations; hypo- and avitaminosis, chronic intoxication, severe refractive errors, unsatisfactory sanitary and hygienic conditions.
20. Duration of various conjunctivitis. Pneumococcal conjunctivitis 7-12 days, Koch-Wicks conjunctivitis 2-3 weeks, gonoblennorrhea 1-2 months, diphtheria - 2-4 weeks, EFC, AFCL, spring catarrh -1-2 months.
21. List of laboratory methods for etiological diagnosis of conjunctivitis. Virological, bacteriological and cytological studies of scrapings from the conjunctiva and cornea, culture and smear from the conjunctiva for microflora and determination of its sensitivity to antibiotics and sulfonamide drugs.
22. Basic principles of treatment of bacterial conjunctivitis: 1) anesthesia, toilet of the eyelids and conjunctival sac with disinfectant solutions up to 10 times a day, daily before instillation of sulfa drugs and antibiotics; 2) local exposure to the pathogen with solutions, ointments of antibiotics and sulfonamide drugs, taking into account the sensitivity of the flora to them, up to 10 times a day until recovery; 3) general antibacterial therapy; 4) vitamin therapy.
23. Basic methods and terms of treatment of epidemic and pneumococcal conjunctivitis. Ingestion of sulfonamide and antibacterial drugs, hourly washing of the conjunctival cavity with a disinfectant 2% solution of boric acid (alkalinization) and antibiotic solutions, application of antibacterial and sulfonamide ointments for 7-10 days.
24. Features of the treatment of adenoviral conjunctivitis: 1) isolation of patients for 3 weeks or more; 2) treatment in boxed departments of a hospital; 3) prescription of broad-spectrum antibiotics orally and locally; anesthetics; 4) installation of virus-static agents; 5) resorption therapy; 6) agents that reduce vascular permeability; 7) restorative treatment.
25. Definition of the disease trachomatous conjunctivitis (trachoma). Trachoma is a specific contagious keratoconjunctivitis that occurs chronically and is caused by an atypical virus.
26. The main cardinal signs of trachoma: 1) follicles and infiltration of the conjunctiva of the eyelids; 2) epithelial or subepithelial keratitis in the upper third of the cornea; 3) corneal pannus, more pronounced from above; 4) characteristic scars of the conjunctiva of the eyelids; 5) purulent discharge.
27. Incubation period of trachoma. 3-14 days.
28. The main possible routes of trachoma infection. Infection occurs through direct and indirect contact (through household items).
29. Some common factors contributing to the occurrence of trachoma: 1) low economic level; 2) low sanitary culture of the population; 3) population density; 4) hot climate; 5) unsatisfactory hygienic conditions.
30. International classification of trachoma. Suspicion of trachoma, pretrachoma, stage I trachoma, stage II trachoma, stage III trachoma and stage IV trachoma, which is divided into 4 groups depending on the degree of decrease in visual acuity.
31. Signs on the basis of which suspicion of trachoma is determined: 1) subtle or atypical follicles; 2) subtle or atypical changes in the cornea; 3) negative results of special laboratory research methods.
32. Signs (symptoms) characteristic of pretrachoma. Mild hyperemia of the conjunctiva of the eyelids and its slight infiltration, single follicles and questionable changes in the cornea in the presence of specific inclusions in scrapings from the conjunctiva.
33. Signs characterizing stage I trachoma. The conjunctiva is hyperemic, sharply infiltrated;
follicles of different sizes, grayish-turbid in color, predominate in the transitional folds and cartilage of the upper eyelid. Early changes in the cornea, mucopurulent discharge. Laboratory tests are positive.
34. The main signs of stage II trachoma. A large number of mature juicy follicles against the background of hyperemic and infiltrated tissue, pannus and infiltrates in the area of ​​the upper limbus and cornea, decaying follicles and isolated scars. Laboratory tests are positive.
35. Symptoms characterizing stage III trachoma. Marked regression of follicles in all parts of the conjunctiva, regressive pannus, predominance of white linear scars in the conjunctiva.
36. Signs characteristic of stage IV trachoma. The presence of cicatricial changes in the conjunctiva of the eyelids and eyes without signs of inflammation.
37. The main signs of trachomatous pannus. Swelling of the limbus, infiltration and vascularization of predominantly the upper segment of the cornea.
38. Reasons causing the characteristic localization of trachomatous pannus. The localization of pannus in the upper part of the cornea is due to greater trauma to this part by the pathologically altered conjunctiva of the upper eyelid.
39. Possible varieties (forms) of the clinical course of trachoma. Follicular, confluent, papillary, mixed.
40. Features of the course of trachoma in children. Hidden imperceptible onset, mild symptoms of conjunctivitis, slight infiltration of the mucous membrane and small exudation, predominance of follicles on the mucous membrane of the upper eyelid and transitional fold, minimal changes in the cornea, frequent relapses.
41. Diseases from which it is necessary to differentiate trachoma: 1) follicular conjunctivitis with inclusions; 2) pharyngoconjunctival fever; 3) folliculosis; 4) spring catarrh; 5) epidemic keratoconjunctivitis.
42. Consequences arising from the scarring process in trachoma. Entropion of the eyelids, trichiasis, posterior symblepharon, ptosis, corneal cataract, limited mobility of the eyeball, blindness.
43. A contingent of patients with trachoma who require mandatory hospitalization. Persons with stage I and IV trachoma who require surgical treatment are subject to mandatory hospitalization.
44. The main criteria for improving the population’s health from trachoma: 1) absence of cases of registration of new diseases for 3 years; 2) absence of disease relapses for 3 years in persons with stage IV trachoma.
45. Terms of dispensary observation for patients with trachoma. 6 months of anti-relapse treatment and subsequent active surveillance for the same period.
46. ​​Necessary data for deregistration of those who have recovered from trachoma. Absence of hyperemia and follicles, absence of pannus, presence of only scars on biomicroscopy and negative laboratory tests.
47. Etiotropic drugs used in the treatment of trachoma. Tetracycline, oxy- and chlortetracycline, erythromycin, oleandomycin, spiramycin, synthomycin, dibiomycin, etazol, sulfadimezin, sulfafenazole, madribon, sulfapyridazine, etc.
48. The main method of treating trachoma. Daily for 6 months up to 5 times a day, administering anesthetics, washing the conjunctival cavity with antiseptics; instillation of drops and ointments with sulfonamide drugs and tetracycline antibiotics. During drug treatment, follicles are expressed 1-2 times a month. Placing corticosteroid ointments into the conjunctival sac, and applying ultraviolet physiotherapy locally.
49. The main result of the fight against trachoma in the country. Trachoma was eliminated everywhere, mainly by 1970.
50. Countries where the incidence of trachoma is common. Countries of Asia and Africa.

Keratitis

1. Three regenerating layers of the cornea. Epithelium, Descemet's membrane, endothelium.
2. Five basic properties and functions of the normal cornea. Transparency, sphericity, brilliance, sensitivity, size, refraction of light rays according to age.
3. Sources of innervation of the cornea. Trigeminal nerve, autonomic nervous system.
4. Two possible abnormalities in corneal size. The giant cornea is megalocornea, the small cornea is microcornea.
5. Horizontal size of the cornea of ​​a newborn and an adult. 9 mm and 11.5 mm.
6. Three options for changing the sphericity of the cornea. Keratoconus, keratoglobus, aplanation.
7. Three sources of nutrition for the cornea. Superficial and deep looped vascular networks from the anterior ciliary arteries, anterior chamber moisture, lacrimal fluid.
8. The state of corneal sensitivity in a child up to 2 months of age. Very low or absent.
9. Causes of corneal clouding. Inflammation, dystrophy, damage, tumors.
10. Picture of pericorneal injection. A bluish-violet diffuse rim that does not shift when the conjunctiva moves and is most intense around the cornea.
11. Signs of corneal syndrome. Photophobia, blepharospasm, lacrimation, pain.
12. Methods used to study the condition of the cornea. Lateral illumination, combined examination, biomicroscopy, fluorescein test, sensitivity determination, keratometry.
13. Six main signs of corneal inflammation (keratitis). Corneal opacification, pericorneal injection, pain, corneal syndrome, decreased vision.
14. Clinical signs that distinguish infiltrate from corneal scar.
Corneal infiltration is accompanied by corneal syndrome, pericorneal or mixed injection, unclear boundaries, and grayish color.
15. The most common cause of keratitis in children and adults. Herpetic etiology.
16. Disease of the eye appendages, predisposing to the development of purulent keratitis - corneal ulcers. Dacryocystitis.
17. List of laboratory tests necessary for the etiological diagnosis of purulent keratitis.
Bacteriological examination of scrapings from the conjunctiva and cornea with determination of sensitivity to antibiotics.
18. Methods of administering drugs for keratitis. In drops, ointments, using powdering, electro-phono-iono-magnetophoresis, under the conjunctiva.
19. Characteristic symptoms of tuberculous-allergic (phlyctenulous) keratitis. Acute onset, sharp corneal syndrome, isolated round superficial pinkish-yellow infiltrates (phlyctens), ingrowth of superficial vessels into them, pain, decreased vision.
20. Signs of syphilitic keratitis. Diffuse deep opacification of the cornea of ​​a grayish color without a defect in its epithelium, iritis (both eyes are affected), pericorneal injection, pain, decreased visual acuity.
21. Clinical picture of post-primary herpetic keratitis. The sensitivity of the cornea is reduced, and there are almost no newly formed vessels in it. Keratitis is often preceded by febrile illnesses. Corneal syndrome is mild.
22. Features of the clinical picture of primary herpetic keratitis. Children under 5 years of age are more likely to get sick. Acute onset, diffuse infiltration. More often, the metaherpetic form is accompanied by the formation of superficial and deep vessels in the cornea, as well as herpes of the skin and mucous membrane.
23. Varieties of infiltrate forms characteristic of herpetic keratitis. Superficial, round, tree-like, deep, disc-shaped, landscape-shaped, vesicular.
24. Clinical picture of tuberculous metastatic keratitis. Individual infiltrates of the cornea are deep, pinkish-yellow, surrounded by vessels in the form of “baskets”, a defect in the corneal epithelium, corneal syndrome, iritis, a significant decrease in visual acuity, pain.
25. Drugs that increase specific immunity for herpetic keratitis. Gamma globulin, herpetic polyantigen. Autologous blood injected under the conjunctiva.
26. Factors contributing to the involvement of the anterior part of the choroid in the process in keratitis.
Common blood supply due to anastomoses of the anterior ciliary and posterior long arteries.
27. Possible outcomes of keratitis. Resorption of infiltrate, development of connective tissue (scars), secondary glaucoma, staphyloma, low vision, blindness.
28. Types of opacities possible in the outcome of keratitis. Cloud, spot, simple thorn, complicated thorn.
29. Principles of treatment of corneal opacities. Absorbable drug therapy, physiotherapy, keratoplasty.
30. Drugs used to treat herpetic keratitis. DNase, kerecid, oxolin, interferon, interferonogens, pyrogenal, poludan, florenal, bonafton.
31. Common infectious diseases in which keratitis can develop. Chicken pox, diphtheria, measles, adenovirus infections, scarlet fever.
32. Indications for the use of mydriatic drugs for keratitis. Prevention and presence of iridocyclitis.
33. Keratitis, for which local use of corticosteroids is indicated. Syphilitic, trachomatous, toxic-allergic, post-traumatic.

Uveitis (iridocyclitis)

1. General definition of uveitis (iridocyclitis). Inflammatory disease of the choroid of the eye.
2. Classification of uveitis according to course, localization, morphology. Uveitis is divided into acute, subacute, chronic; anterior, posterior and panuveitis; exudative and proliferative; granulomatous and non-granulomatous.
3. Features of the blood supply that contribute to the occurrence of endogenous uveitis. Rich vascularization of the choroid, slow blood flow, many anastomoses.
4. The most common clinical symptoms of uveitis. Acute onset, rapid course, pronounced symptoms of irritation, pigmented, easily bursable synechiae, small precipitates, mixed injection, pain, decreased visual acuity.
5. Diseases that cause non-granulomatous uveitis. Allergies, influenza, collagenosis, typhus, focal infection, metabolic diseases.
6. Clinical symptoms of granulomatous uveitis. An imperceptible onset, a sluggish course, mildly expressed phenomena of irritation, the formation of stromal synechiae, large precipitates, the presence of granulomas in the choroid.
7. Uveitis related to granulomatous. Tuberculosis, brucellosis, toxoplasmosis, syphilitic.
8. Type of injection characteristic of iridocyclitis. Pericorneal, mixed.
9. Main symptoms of iridocyclitis. Pericorneal injection, precipitates, hyperemia and blurring of the iris pattern, narrowing and irregular shape of the pupil, slower reaction of the pupil to light, synechiae, opacification of the vitreous, decreased vision.
10. Complaints from patients with iridocyclitis. Photophobia, lacrimation, eye pain, decreased visual acuity.
11. Complications arising from iridocyclitis. Secondary glaucoma, sequential cataracts.
12. Localization and type of changes in chorioretinitis (posterior uveitis).
The presence of pinkish-yellowish, pinkish-white and other shades of foci in the fundus, dilation of blood vessels and swelling of the retinal tissue.
13. Complaints of patients with chorioretinitis. Distortion of the shape and size of objects, decreased visual acuity and narrowing of the boundaries of the visual field.
14. The most common etiology of uveitis in childhood. Tuberculosis, collagenosis, toxoplasmosis.
15. Clinical picture of uveitis of tuberculous etiology. More often, acute onset, rapid progression of the process, pericorneal injection, large sebaceous precipitates, changes in the iris and pupil (whitish “guns”), powerful posterior synechiae, vitreous opacities, choroidal lesions in the fundus, persistent decrease in central and peripheral vision. Children of school age get sick more often.
16. Laboratory studies of the etiological diagnosis of uveitis. Tuberculin Mantoux reactions, hemo- and protein-tuberculin tests, examination of gastric lavage waters for Mycobacterium tuberculosis, ASL-0, ASG, DFA, ESR, for brucellosis, toxoplasmosis.
17. Principles of therapy for tuberculous uveitis. General and local specific antibacterial and hyposensitizing therapy, vitamins and hormonal drugs, diet therapy, regimen.
18. Clinical picture of uveitis in Still's disease (collagenosis). Absence of acute phenomena of irritation, band-like dystrophy (corneal opacities from 3 to 9 hours, small precipitates, fusion and fusion of the pupil, clouding of the lens (sequential cataract) and vitreous body. Bilateral progressive process. Sharp decrease in vision. Children of preschool age get sick more often. Phenomena are frequent polyarthritis.
19. Medicines used for uveitis in Still's disease. Salicylates, corticosteroids, quinoline drugs, general and local hyposensitizing and resolving therapy, mydriatic agents (topically).
20. Operations used for Still's disease. Partial keratectomy, iridectomy, cataract extraction.
21. Clinical picture of uveitis in toxoplasmosis. The disease occurs predominantly in the form of posterior uveitis - chorioretinitis with a central (macular) localization of the lesion. Visual acuity sharply decreases, scotomas are present. Combined with general manifestations of the disease - diagnosed in children of the first years of life and in newborns.
22. Therapy of toxoplasmosis uveitis. Repeated courses of chloroquine and sulfonamide drugs, complex resorption therapy (phonophoresis) locally.
23. Clinical picture of rheumatic uveitis. Acute onset against the background of a rheumatic attack. Pronounced pericorneal injection, changes in the iris, gelatinous exudate in the anterior chamber, posterior, often pigmented, synechiae, retinovasculitis. Temporary decrease in visual functions.
24. Principles of treatment of rheumatic uveitis. General treatment with salicylates and corticosteroids. Local anti-inflammatory and resorption therapy. The use of agents that reduce vascular permeability and anesthetics.
25. Clinical picture of influenza uveitis. Uveitis occurs during or shortly after influenza. Severe mixed injection, hyperemia of the iris, small precipitates, hemorrhages in the anterior chamber, single pigmented posterior synechiae, dilation of retinal vessels, papillitis. Rapid process reversal.
26. Treatment of influenza uveitis. General anti-influenza treatment. Local anti-inflammatory, absorbable therapy.
27. Parts of the choroid that are most often affected by congenital and acquired syphilis. In congenital - the choroid, in acquired - the iris and ciliary body.
28. Causes and clinical picture of metastatic ophthalmia. The introduction of the pathogen through the bloodstream into the choroid during pneumonia, sepsis, osteomyelitis, etc. It begins at lightning speed with a decrease in vision. It occurs as endo- or panophthalmitis with severe chemosis (edema) of the conjunctiva, hypopyon, and accumulation of pus in the vitreous body. A sharp decrease in visual acuity up to blindness.
29. Treatment of metastatic ophthalmia. General antibacterial. Local antibacterial (in Tennon's space, suprachoroidal, vitreous, subconjunctival) and resorption therapy, anesthetics.
30. Congenital anomalies of the choroid and their effect on vision. Aniridia, polycoria, corectopia, coloboma of the iris and choroid, residual pupillary membrane, choroideremia, pigment spot. All changes are accompanied by a decrease in visual acuity and loss of vision.
31. Difference between congenital coloboma and post-traumatic (postoperative) coloboma. Congenital coloboma is located at 6 o'clock, the sphincter is preserved (keyhole view downwards). Post-traumatic coloboma also has the appearance of a keyhole, but does not have a sphincter and a specific localization.
32. Medicines that dilate the pupil, the sequence of their instillation. 1% solution of atropine sulfate, 0.25% solution of scopolamine hydrobromide, 1% solution of homatropine hydrobromide, as well as synergists: 1% solution of cocaine hydrochloride, 0.1% solution of adrenaline hydrochloride. Cocaine is instilled, after 3 minutes atropine (scopolamine), after 15 minutes adrenaline.
33. Outcomes of uveitis in children. At least 30% of uveitis results in a persistent drop in visual acuity below 0.3.

Congenital lens pathology

1. Main symptoms of cataracts. Decreased visual acuity, clouding of the lens, gray pupil.
2. Diseases of the mother during pregnancy that contribute to the occurrence of congenital cataracts. Influenza, rubella, toxoplasmosis, syphilis, diabetes mellitus; the effect of ionizing radiation, various physical and chemical agents; avitaminosis.
3. The difference between the lens of a 40-year-old person and the lens of a child. Lentil-shaped, presence of insoluble proteins - albuminoids and nucleus, fragile ligaments of Zinn, weak accommodative ability.
4. Chemical composition of the lens. Water (65%), proteins (30%), vitamins, min. salts and trace elements (5%).
5. Features of lens nutrition. Mainly by diffusion of substances from chamber moisture through the posterior capsule of the lens with the active participation of the lens itself (anaerobic glycolysis and tissue respiration).
6. The refractive power of the lens in a newborn and an adult. In a newborn it is 35.0 D, in an adult it is 20.0 D.
7. Criteria underlying the classification of cataracts in children. Origin, type, localization, presence of complications and accompanying changes, degree of vision loss.
8. Division of cataracts by origin. Hereditary, intrauterine, sequential, secondary.
9. Division of childhood cataracts by severity. Simple, with complications, with accompanying changes.
10. Possible complications of childhood cataracts. Nystagmus, amblyopia, strabismus, ocular torticollis.
11. Possible local and general accompanying changes in childhood cataracts. Local: microphthalmos, aniridia, coloboma of the retinal choroid and optic nerve. General: Marfan syndrome, Marchesani syndrome.
12. Characteristics of congenital cataracts by type and location. Polar, nuclear, zonular, coronal, diffuse, membranous, polymorphic.
13. Division of congenital cataracts according to the degree of vision loss. I degree (visual acuity not lower than 0.3); II degree (visual acuity 0.2-0.05); III degree (visual acuity below 0.05).
14. Age of children at which there are indications for surgical treatment of cataracts. 2-4 months
15. Indications for extraction of II degree cataracts in children. You can operate.
16. Indications for extraction of third degree cataracts in children. We need to operate.
17. Indications for surgical removal of grade I cataracts in children. There are no indications for extraction.
18. Rationale for the need for early detection of congenital cataracts in children. Prevention of complications (amblyopia, strabismus, nystagmus).
19. Methods for early prevention of complications with cataracts. Instillation of solutions of mydriatic agents and the use of “curly” lights in the first 6 months (before surgery).
20. Methods for removing congenital cataracts. Extracapsular extraction (suction) of lens masses, laser puncture, etc.
21. Studies performed on patients with cataracts before surgery. Examination of the child by a pediatrician, neurologist, otolaryngologist, urine and blood tests, chest X-ray, culture of the conjunctiva for flora and sensitivity to antibiotics, acoustics, diaphanoscopy, determination of ophthalmotonus, vision (light perception).
22. Definition of the concept and signs of aphakia. Aphakia is the absence of a lens. Aphakia is characterized by a deep anterior chamber, iris tremors, very low visual acuity without glasses, and increased visual acuity with glasses.
23. Measures for aphakia to improve visual acuity. Prescription of appropriate glasses and contact lenses. Treatment of obscuration amblyopia.
24. Types of correction of unilateral aphakia in children. Contact lenses or glasses with a difference of 4 diopters.
25. Congenital anomalies of the shape and position of the lens. Lenticonus, lentiglobus, lens coloboma, lens dislocation in Marfan syndrome and Marchesani syndrome.
26. Indications for surgery - lens extraction for congenital anomalies of shape, size and position. Corrected visual acuity is below 0.2.

All files on the site, before they are posted, checked for viruses. Therefore, we give a 100% guarantee of file purity.

Download for free Questions and answers on ophthalmology | Part 1 With.

01. The thinnest wall of the orbit is:

a) outer wall

b) upper wall

c) inner wall

d) bottom wall

e) upper and inner
02. The optic nerve canal serves to pass:

a) optic nerve

b) abducens nerve

c) oculomotor nerve

d) central retinal vein

e) frontal artery
03. The lacrimal sac is located:

a) inside the eye socket

b) outside the orbit

c) partly inside and partly outside the orbit.

d) in the maxillary cavity

e) in the middle cranial fossa
04. For eyelid wounds, tissue regeneration:

a) high

b) low

c) does not differ significantly from tissue regeneration in other areas of the face

d) lower than other areas of the face.

d) higher than other areas of the face
05. Tear-producing organs include:

a) lacrimal gland and accessory lacrimal glands

b) lacrimal openings

c) lacrimal canaliculi

d) nasolacrimal duct
06. The nasolacrimal duct opens in:

a) lower nasal passage

b) middle nasal meatus

c) superior nasal passage

d) into the maxillary sinus

e) into the main sinus
07. The sclera is thickest in the area:

b) the equator

c) optic nerve head

d) under the rectus tendon.

e) under the tendon of the oblique muscles
08. The cornea consists of:

a) two layers

b) three layers

c) four layers

d) five layers

d) six layers
09. The layers of the cornea are located:

a) parallel to the surface of the cornea

b) chaotic

c) concentrically

d) in an oblique direction
10. Nutrition of the cornea is provided by:

a) marginal looped vascular network

b) central retinal artery

c) lacrimal artery

d) anterior ciliary arteries

e) supratrochlear artery
11. The optic nerve head is located:

a) in the center of the fundus

b) in the nasal half of the fundus:

d) in the upper half of the fundus

d) outside the fundus
12. The functional center of the retina is:

a) optic disc

b) central fossa

c) dentate line zone

d) vascular bundle.

e) juxtapapillary zone
13. The optic nerve leaves the orbit through:

a) superior orbital fissure

b) for. opticum

c) inferior orbital fissure

d) round hole

e) maxillary sinus
14. The vascular tract performs:

a) trophic function

b) light refraction function

c) light perception function

d) protective function

e) support function
15. The retina performs the function:

a) refraction of light

b) trophic

c) perception of light

d) protective function

e) support function
16. Intraocular fluid is produced mainly by:

a) iris

b) choroid

c) lens

d) ciliary body

e) cornea
17. Tenon’s capsule separates:

a) choroid from the sclera

b) retina from the vitreous body

c) eyeball from orbital tissue

d) there is no correct answer

e) cornea from sclera
18. Bowman's membrane is located between:

a) corneal epithelium and stroma

b) stroma and Descemet's membrane

c) Descemet’s membrane and endothelium

d) layers of the retina
19. The choroid nourishes:

b) inner layers of the retina

c) the entire retina

d) optic nerve

d) sclera
20. The motor apparatus of the eye consists of muscles:

a) four

d) eight

d) ten
21. “Muscle funnel” originates from:

a) round hole

b) optic hole

c) superior orbital fissure

d) inferior orbital fissure

e) the inner wall of the orbit
22. The arterial circle of Haller is formed by:

a) long posterior ciliary arteries

b) short posterior ciliary arteries

c) ethmoidal arteries

d) muscle arteries

d) all of the above
23. The central retinal artery supplies:

a) choroid

b) inner layers of the retina

c) outer layers of the retina

d) vitreous body

d.) sclera
24. The orbital nerve is:

a) sensory nerve

b) motor nerve

c) mixed nerve

d) parasympathetic nerve

d) sympathetic nerve
25. In the area of ​​the chiasm, ...% of the fibers of the optic nerves intersect:

e) 10%
26. Eye development begins at:

a) 1-2 weeks of intrauterine life

b) 3rd week-

c) 4th week

d) 5th week.

d) 10th week
27. The choroid is formed:

a) mesoderm

b) ectoderm

c) mixed nature

d) neuroectoderm

e) endoderm
28. The retina is formed from:

a) ectoderm

b) neuroectoderm

c) mesoderm

d) endoderm

d) mixed nature
29. Through the superior orbital fissure passes:

1) ophthalmic nerve

2) oculomotor nerves

3) main venous collector

4) abducens nerve

5) trochlear nerve

d) if the correct answer is 4

30. Eyelids are:

1) accessory part of the organ of vision

4) side wall of the orbit

5) do not relate to the organ of vision

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
31. The branches of the ophthalmic artery are:

1) central retinal artery

2) lacrimal artery

3) supraorbital artery

4) frontal artery

5) supratrochlear artery

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
32. The outflow of blood from the eyelids is directed:

1) towards the veins of the orbit

2) towards the facial veins

3) in both directions

4) towards the upper jaw

5) towards the cavernous sinus

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
33. Pericorneal injection indicates:

1) conjunctivitis

2) increased intraocular pressure

3) inflammation of the vascular tract

4) damage to tear-producing organs

5) intraocular foreign body

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
34. Innervation of the lacrimal gland is carried out:

1) parasympathetic nervous system

2) sympathetic nervous system

3) mixed type

4) facial and trigeminal nerves

5) abducens nerve

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
35. Fluid outflow from the anterior chamber occurs through:

1) pupil area

2) lens capsule

3) ligaments of Zinn

4) trabecular zone

5) iris zone

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
36. The position of the jagged line corresponds to:

1) limbus projection zone

2) the place of attachment of the rectus tendons

3) trabecular projection zone

4) behind the projection zone of the ciliary body

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
37. The choroid consists of a layer:

1) small vessels

2) middle vessels

3) large vessels

4) nerve fibers

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
38. The optic nerve has sheaths:

1) soft shell

2) arachnoid membrane

3) internal elastic

4) hard shell

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
39. The moisture of the anterior chamber serves for:

1) nutrition of the cornea and lens

2) removal of waste metabolic products

3) maintaining normal ophthalmotonus

4) light refraction

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
40. Within the “muscular funnel” there is:

1) optic nerve

2) ophthalmic artery

3) oculomotor nerve

4) abducens nerve

5) trochlear nerve

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
41. The vitreous body performs all functions:

1) trophic function

2) “buffer” function

3) light-conducting function

4) support function

5) maintaining ophthalmotonus

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
42. The tissues of the orbit receive nutrition from sources:

1) ethmoidal arteries

2) lacrimal artery

3) ophthalmic artery

4) central retinal artery.

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
43. The blood supply to the eyeball is carried out by vessels::

1) ophthalmic artery

2) central retinal artery

3) posterior short ciliary arteries

4) anterior ciliary arteries

5) posterior long ciliary arteries

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
44. The short posterior ciliary arteries supply:

1) cornea

2) iris

4) outer layers of the retina

5) inner layers of the retina.

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
45. Blood supply to the ciliary body and iris is carried out:

1) long posterior ciliary arteries

2) short posterior ciliary arteries

3) anterior ciliary arteries

4) ethmoidal arteries

5) medial arteries of the eyelids

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
46. ​​The outflow of blood from the tissues of the orbit is carried out through:

1) superior ophthalmic vein

2) inferior ophthalmic vein

3) central retinal vein

5) inferotemporal branch of the central retinal vein

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
47. Motor innervation of extraocular muscles is carried out by the following structures:

1) oculomotor nerve

2) abducens nerve

3) trochlear nerve

4) trigeminal nerve

5) trigeminal node

Choose the correct answer according to the diagram

a) if answers 1, 2 and 3 are correct

b) if answers 1 and 3 are correct

c) if answers 2 and 4 are correct

d) if the correct answer is 4

e) if answers 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
(=#) SECTION 2. PHYSIOLOGY OF THE VISUAL ORGAN. FUNCTIONAL AND CLINICAL METHODS FOR STUDYING THE VISUAL ORGAN
48. The main function of the visual analyzer, without which all its other visual functions cannot develop, is:

a) peripheral vision

b) monocular visual acuity

c) color perception

d) light perception

e) binocular vision.
49. With visual acuity above 1.0, the visual angle is equal to:

a) less than 1 minute

b) 1 minute

c) 1.5 minutes

d) 2 minutes

e) 2.5 minutes
50. For the first time, a table for determining visual acuity was compiled by:

a) Golovin

b) Sivtsev

c) Snellen

d) Landolt

d) Orlova
51. With parafoveal fixation, visual acuity in a 10-12 year old child corresponds to the following values:

a) more than 1.0

e) below 0.513
52. In modern tables for determining visual acuity by Golovin Sivtsev for determining visual acuity, small details of the presented objects are visible from a visual angle:

a) less than 1 minute

b) in 1 minute

c) in 2 minutes

d) in 3 minutes

e) more than 3 minutes
53. If a person distinguishes from a distance of 1 meter only the first line of the table for determining visual acuity, then his visual acuity is equal to:

e) 0.005
54. There is no light perception in a patient with:

a) intense total opacification of the cornea

b) total cataract

c) central retinal degeneration

d) complete atrophy of the optic nerve

e) retinal tear in the macular zone
55. The functional state of the cone apparatus of the retina is determined by:

a) light perception

b) state of light adaptation

c) visual acuity

d) boundaries of peripheral vision
56. Dark adaptation should be studied in patients with:

a) retinal abiotrophy

b) mild and moderate myopia

c) hypermetropia with astigmatism

d) squint

e) refractive amblyopia
57. The formation of binocular vision is possible only when high vision of the right and left eyes is combined with:

a) orthophoria

b) exophoria

c) esophoria

d) lack of fusion
58. The adaptive ability of the visual analyzer is determined by the ability to:

a) see objects in low light

b) distinguish light

c) adapt to light of different brightness levels

d) see objects at different distances

d) distinguish shades of different colors

Home > Tests

TESTS ON THE TOPIC:

QUALIFICATION TESTS IN OPHTHALMOLOGY (Apr 2007)

(full list)

1. Development, normal anatomy and histology

Please indicate one correct answer

1. 001. The thinnest wall of the orbit is:

a) outer wall

b) upper wall

c) inner wall

d) bottom wall

e) upper and inner

2. 002. The optic nerve canal serves to pass:

a) optic nerve

b) abducens nerve

c) oculomotor nerve

d) central retinal vein

e) frontal artery

3. 003. The lacrimal sac is located:

a) inside the eye socket

b) outside the orbit

c) partly inside and partly outside the orbit

d) in the maxillary cavity

e) in the middle cranial fossa

4. 004. For eyelid wounds, tissue regeneration:

a) high

b) low

c) does not differ significantly from tissue regeneration in other areas of the face

d) lower than other areas of the face

d) higher than other areas of the face

5. 005. Tear-producing organs include:

a) lacrimal gland and accessory lacrimal glands

b) lacrimal openings

c) lacrimal canaliculi

d) nasolacrimal duct

6.006. The nasolacrimal duct opens in:

a) inferior lacrimal duct

b) middle nasal meatus

c) superior nasal passage

d) into the maxillary sinus

e) into the main sinus

7. 007. The sclera has the greatest thickness in the area:

b) the equator

c) optic nerve head

d) under the rectus tendon

e) under the tendon of the oblique muscles

8.008. The cornea consists of:

a) two layers

b) three layers

c) four layers

d) five layers

d) six layers

9.009. The layers of the cornea are located:

a) parallel to the surface of the cornea

b) chaotic

c) concentrically

d) in an oblique direction

10.010. Nutrition of the cornea is carried out due to:

a) marginal looped vascular network

b) central retinal artery

c) lacrimal artery

e) supratrochlear artery

11.011. The optic nerve head is located:

a) in the center of the fundus

b) in the nasal half of the fundus

c) in the temporal half of the fundus

d) in the upper half of the fundus

d) outside the fundus

12.012. The functional center of the retina is:

a) optic disc

b) central fossa

c) dentate line zone

d) vascular bundle

e) juxtapapillary zone

13.013. The optic nerve leaves the orbit through

a) superior orbital fissure

b) for. Opticum

c) inferior orbital fissure

d) round hole

e) maxillary sinus

14.014. The vascular tract performs:

a) trophic function

b) light refraction function

c) light perception function

d) protective function

e) support function

15.015. The retina performs the function:

a) refraction of light

b) trophic

c) perception of light

d) protective function

e) support function

16.016. Intraocular fluid is produced mainly by:

a) iris

b) choroid

c) lens

d) ciliary body

e) cornea

17.017. Tenon's capsule separates:

a) choroid from the sclera

b) retina from the vitreous body

c) eyeball from orbital tissue

d) there is no correct answer

e) cornea from sclera

18.018. Bowman's membrane is located between:

a) corneal epithelium and stroma

b) stroma and Descemet's membrane

c) Descemet’s membrane and endothelium

d) layers of the retina

19.019. The choroid nourishes:

a) outer layers of the retina

b) inner layers of the retina

c) the entire retina

d) optic nerve

d) sclera

20.020. The motor apparatus of the eye consists of - ... extraocular muscles

a) four

d) eight

d) ten

21.021. “Muscle funnel” originates from:

a) round hole

b) optic hole

c) superior orbital fissure

d) inferior orbital fissure

e) the inner wall of the orbit

22.022. The arterial circle of Haller is formed:

b) short posterior ciliary arteries

c) ethmoidal arteries

d) muscle arteries

d) all of the above

23.023. The central retinal artery supplies:

a) choroid

b) inner layers of the retina

c) outer layers of the retina

d) vitreous body

d) sclera

24.024. The orbital nerve is:

a) sensory nerve

b) motor nerve

c) mixed nerve

d) parasympathetic nerve

d) sympathetic nerve

25.025. In the area of ​​the chiasm,...% of the fibers of the optic nerves intersect

26.026. Eye development begins at:

a) 1-2 weeks of intrauterine life

b) 3rd week of intrauterine life

c) 4th week of intrauterine life

d) 5th week of intrauterine life

e) 10th week of intrauterine life

27.027. The choroid is formed:

a) mesoderm

b) ectoderm

c) mixed nature

d) neuroectoderm

e) endoderm

28.028. The retina is formed from:

a) ectoderm

b) neuroectoderm

c) mesoderm

d) endoderm

d) mixed nature

29.029. Passes through the superior orbital fissure:

a) ophthalmic nerve

b) oculomotor nerves

c) main venous collector

d) abducens, trochlear nerves

d) all of the above are true

30.030. Eyelids are:

a) top of the orbit

b) accessory, protective part of the organ of vision

c) all of the above

d) the side wall of the orbit

d) do not relate to the organ of vision

31.031. The branches of the ophthalmic artery are:

a) central retinal artery

b) lacrimal artery

c) supraorbital artery

d) frontal, supratrochlear artery

d) all of the above are true

32.032. The outflow of blood from the eyelids is directed:

a) towards the veins of the orbit, facial veins, in both directions

b) towards the facial veins

c) in both directions

d) towards the upper jaw

e) towards the cavernous sinus

33.033. Pericorneal injection indicates:

a) conjunctivitis, increased IOP, inflammation of the vascular tract

b) increased intraocular pressure

c) inflammation of the vascular tract

d) damage to tear-producing organs

d) intraocular foreign body

34. 34. Innervation of the lacrimal gland is carried out:

a) parasympathetic nervous system

b) sympathetic nervous system

c) mixed type

d) facial and trigeminal nerves

d) abducens nerve

35. 35. Fluid outflow from the anterior chamber occurs through:

a) pupil area

b) lens capsule

c) ligaments of Zinn

d) trabecular zone

d) iris zone

36. 36. The position of the jagged line corresponds to:

a) limbus projection zone

b) the place of attachment of the rectus tendons

c) trabecular projection zone

d) behind the projection zone of the ciliary body

37. 37. The choroid consists of a layer:

a) small, medium, large vessels

b) middle vessels

c) large vessels

d) nerve fibers

38. 38. The optic nerve has sheaths:

a) soft shell, arachnoid, internal elastic

b) arachnoid membrane

c) internal elastic

d) hard shell

39. 039. The moisture of the anterior chamber serves for:

a) nutrition of the cornea and lens

b) removal of waste metabolic products

c) maintaining normal ophthalmotonus

d) all of the above

40. 40. Within<мышечной воронки>located:

a) optic nerve

b) ophthalmic artery

c) oculomotor nerve

d) abducens nerve

d) all of the above

41. 41. The vitreous body performs all functions:

a) trophic function

b) "buffer function"

c) light-conducting function

d) support function

d) all of the above

42. 42. The tissues of the orbit receive nutrition from sources:

a) ethmoidal arteries, lacrimal, orbital arteries

b) lacrimal artery

c) ophthalmic artery

d) central retinal artery

e) middle cerebral artery

43. 43. The blood supply to the eyeball is carried out by vessels:

a) ophthalmic artery

b) central retinal artery

c) posterior short ciliary arteries

d) anterior ciliary arteries

d) all of the above are true

44. 44. The short posterior ciliary arteries supply:

a) cornea

b) iris

c) sclera

d) outer layers of the retina

e) inner layers of the retina

45. 45. Blood supply to the ciliary body and iris is carried out:

a) long posterior ciliary arteries

b) long posterior ciliary arteries, anterior ciliary

c) anterior ciliary arteries

d) ethmoidal arteries

e) medial arteries of the eyelids

46. ​​46. The outflow of blood from the tissues of the orbit is carried out through:

a) superior ophthalmic vein

b) inferior ophthalmic vein

c) central retinal vein

d) superior temporal branch of the central retinal vein

d) all of the above are true

47. 47. Motor innervation of extraocular muscles is carried out through the structures:

a) oculomotor, abducens, trochlear nerve

b) abducens nerve

c) trochlear nerve

d) trigeminal nerve

e) trigeminal ganglion

2. Physiology of the organ of vision, functional and clinical research methods

Please indicate one correct answer

48. 48. The main function of the visual analyzer, without which all its other visual functions cannot develop, is:

a) peripheral vision

b) monocular visual acuity

c) color perception

d) light perception

d) binocular vision

49. 49. With visual acuity above 1.0, the visual angle is equal to:

a) less than 1 minute

b) 1 minute

c) 1.5 minutes

d) 2 minutes

e) 2.5 minutes

50. 50. For the first time, a table for determining visual acuity was compiled by:

a) Golovin

b) Sivtsev

c) Snellen

d) Landolt

d) Orlova

51. 51. With parafoveal fixation, visual acuity in a 10-12 year old child corresponds to the following values:

a) more than 1.0

e) below 0.5

52. 52. In modern tables for determining visual acuity by Golovin Sivtsev for determining visual acuity, small details of the presented objects are visible from a visual angle:

a) less than 1 minute

b) in 1 minute

c) in 2 minutes

d) in 3 minutes

e) more than 3 minutes

53. 53. If a person distinguishes from a distance of 1 meter only the first line of the table for determining visual acuity, then his visual acuity is equal to:

54. 54. There is no light perception in a patient with:

a) intense total opacification of the cornea

b) total cataract

c) central retinal degeneration

d) complete atrophy of the optic nerve

e) retinal tear in the macular zone

55. 55. The functional state of the spinous apparatus of the retina is determined by:

a) light perception

b) state of light adaptation

c) visual acuity

d) boundaries of peripheral vision

56. 56. Dark adaptation should be studied in patients with:

a) retinal abiotrophy

b) mild and moderate myopia

c) hypermetropia with astigmatism

d) squint

e) refractive amblyopia

57. 57.The formation of binocular vision is possible only with a combination of high right and left eyes with:

a) orthophoria

b) exophoria

c) esophoria

d) lack of fusion

58. 58. The adaptive ability of the visual analyzer is determined by the ability:

a) see objects in low light

b) distinguish light

c) adapt to light of different brightness levels

d) see objects at different distances

d) distinguish shades of different colors

59. 59. The fusion reflex in a healthy child is formed already at age

a) 1st week of life

b) the first month of life

c) the first 2 months of life

d) the first 5-6 months of life

d) 2nd year of life

60. 060. The size of the blind spot, determined campimetrically, is normally equal to in an adult:

61. 61. Homonymous and heteronymous hemianopsia is determined in patients with:

a) central retinal degeneration

b) anisometropia

c) pathological changes in the visual pathways

d) pathological processes in the area of ​​the Graziole bundle

e) atrophy of papillomacular nerve fibers

62. 62. The fixation reflex is already formed in a healthy child:

a) in the first week of life

b) in the first month of life

c) by 2 months of life

d) by 6 months of life

d) by one year of life

63. 63. Chloropsia is the vision of all surrounding objects in:

a) yellow

b) red

c) green

d) blue

64.064. Physiological scotoma, determined during a perimetric examination of a person, is normally located in relation to the fixation point at:

a) 15 degrees from the bow side

b) 20 degrees from the bow side

c) 15 degrees from the temporal side

d) 25 degrees from the temporal side

e) 30 degrees from the temporal side

65.065. Erythropsia is the vision of all surrounding objects in:

a) blue

b) yellow

c) red

d) green

66.066. Xanthopsia is the vision of surrounding objects in:

a) blue

b) yellow

c) green

d) red

67.067. Cyanopsia is the vision of surrounding objects in:

a) yellow

b) blue

c) red

68. 68. Normally, the field of view has the smallest dimensions on:

a) white color

b) red color

c) green color

d) yellow color

d) blue color

69. 69. In a healthy adult with a normally developed visual analyzer, individual fluctuations in the boundaries of the visual field for white color do not exceed:

a) 5-10 degrees

b) 15 degrees

c) 20 degrees

d) 25 degrees

70. 70. The field of view has the widest boundaries (normally) on:

a) red color

b) yellow color

c) green color

d) blue color

d) white color

71. 71. In an adult with a normally developed visual analyzer, the lower limit of the field of vision for white color is located from the point of fixation at:

a) 45 degrees

b) 50 degrees

c) 55 degrees

d) 65-70 degrees

72. 72. In an adult with a normally developed visual analyzer, the outer (temporal) border of the field of vision for white color is located from the point of fixation at:

a) 60 degrees

b) 70 degrees

c) 90 degrees

d) 100 degrees

d) 120 degrees

73. 73. In an adult with a normally developed visual analyzer, the internal border of the visual field for white color is located from the point of fixation at:

a) 25 degrees

b) 30-40 degrees

c) 55 degrees

d) 65 degrees

d) 75 degrees

74. 74. For the normal formation of stereoscopic vision, a necessary condition is the presence of:

a) normal boundaries of peripheral vision

b) monocular visual acuity not lower than 1.0

c) trichromatic vision

d) binocular vision

e) normal adaptive ability of the organ of vision

75. 75. In an adult, intraocular pressure should not normally exceed:

a) 10-12mm Hg. St

b) 12-15mmHg

c) 15-20mm Hg

d) 20-23 mm Hg.

76. 76. Pathological changes in ophthalmotonus cannot be objectively assessed only by:

a) tonometric study using the Maklakov-Polyak method

b) palpation examination of the eyes

c) tonometric examination of the eye with a Dashevsky tonometer

d) tonographic examination

d) elastotonometry

77. 77. The bactericidal effect of tears is ensured by the presence in it of:

a) lidases

b) chymopsin

c) lysozyme

d) phosphatases

d) mucin

78. 78. The number of eyelid blinks reaches the normal 8-12 per minute in children by age:

a) 3 months of life

b) 1 year of life

c) 5 years of life

d) 7-10 years of life

d) 14-15 years of life

79. 79. The first part of the Vesta test is considered positive if the dye (collargol or fluorescein) completely leaves the conjunctival sac into the lacrimal ducts for:

a) 1-2 minutes

b) 2-3 minutes

c) 3-4 minutes

d) 4-5 minutes

e) 6-7 minutes longer

80. 80. The second part of the Vesta test is considered positive if the dye from the conjunctival sac passes into the nose beyond:

a) 1 minute

b) 2 minutes

c) 3 minutes

d) 5-10 minutes

d) more than 10 minutes

81. 81. For contrast radiography of the lacrimal ducts, one of the following substances is used:

a) collargol

b) fluorescein

c) iodolipol

d) aqueous solution of brilliant green

e) aqueous solution of blue

82. 82. Normal functioning of the lacrimal glands (tear secretion) is formed in children aged:

a) the first S-1 months of life

b) the first 2-3 months of life

c) the first 6-8 months of life

d) 1 year of life

d) 2-3 years of life

83. 83. Meibomian glands, located in the cartilaginous plates of the eyelids, secrete:

b) mucous secretion

c) sebaceous secretion

d) aqueous humor

84. 84. The secretion of the meibomian glands is necessary for:

a) lubricating the surface of the cornea and conjunctiva of the eye

b) lubricating the edges of the eyelids in order to protect their surface from maceration

c) nutrition of the cornea and conjunctiva

d) prevention of the development of the inflammatory process in the conjunctiva

e) prevention of the development of a dystrophic process in the cornea

85. 85. Low sensitivity of the cornea in children in the first months of life is associated with:

a) structural features of the corneal epithelium

b) the peculiarity of the functioning of the lacrimal glands

c) still incomplete formation of the trigeminal nerve

d) insufficient functioning of the mucous glands

e) sensory nerve endings located too deeply in the corneal tissue

86. 86. The highest sensitivity of the cornea is determined in:

a) limbus areas

b) paralimbal zone

c) its upper half

d) central zone

e) paracentral zone

87. 87. The sensitivity of the cornea is impaired when damaged

a) facial nerve

b) oculomotor nerve

c) trigeminal nerve

d) trochlear nerve

d) abducens nerve

88. 088. The refractive power of the cornea normally amounts to the entire refractive power of the optical system of the eye:

89.089. The passage of liquids, gases and electrolytes through the cornea into the eye is mainly influenced by its condition:

a) epithelium and endothelium

b) stroma

c) Descemet's membrane

d) tear film

90. 090. Water makes up in the intraocular fluid up to:

91. 091. Water makes up in the lens of a child’s eye up to:

92. 92. The main role in the redox processes of lens proteins belongs to:

a) albumin

b) globulins

c) cysteine

d) collagen

93. 93. The marginal vascular network of the cornea in a healthy eye is not detected due to the fact that these vessels:

a) not filled with blood

b) covered with opaque scleral tissue

c) has a very small caliber

d) color matches the surrounding tissues of the eye

94. 94. The appearance of pericorneal injection in some pathological conditions of the eye is explained:

a) normal blood circulation in the vessels of the marginal loop network

b) increased intraocular pressure

c) increased blood pressure in the vascular bed of the eye

d) dilation of the vessels of the marginal loop network and increased blood supply to this part of the vascular network of the eye

e) significant thinning of the walls of the vessels of the marginal loop network

95. 95. The formation of a normal tetrahedral shape of the orbit is observed in a child already at the age of:

a) 1-2 months of life

b) 3-4 months of life

c) 6-7 months of life

d) 1 year of life

e) 2 years of life

a) moment of birth

b) 2-3 months of life

c) 6 months of life

d) 1 year of life

d) 2-3 years of life

97. 97. In response to instillation of mydriatics, maximum pupil dilation can be obtained in a child already at the age of:

a) 10 days of life

b) the first month of life

c) the first 3-6 months of life

d) 1 year of life

e) 3 years of age and older

98. 98. Pain sensitivity of the ciliary body is formed in a child only to:

a) 6 months of life

b) 1 year of life

c) 3 years of life

d) 5-7 years of life

e) 8-10 years of life

99. 99. The accommodative function of a healthy eye reaches its maximum value in a person at the age of:

a) 3 years of life

b) 5-6 years of life

c) 7-8 years of life

d) 14-16 years of life

e) 20 years and older

100. 100. In a healthy child with normal (physiological) growth of the eyeball, the sagittal size of the eye increases during the first year of life on average by:

101. 101. In a healthy child with normal (physiological) growth of the eyeball, the sagittal size of the eye increases from 1 year of life to 15-16 years on average by:

102. 102. In an adult with emmetropic refraction, the sagittal size of the eye is on average:

103. 103. In the vitreous body of a healthy eye, water amounts to:

104. 104. The most important physiological function of Bruch's limiting membrane is:

a) protection of the retina from toxic blood components

b) the implementation of metabolism between blood and retinal pigment epithelium cells

c) thermal insulation of the retina

d) barrier function

e) skeleton function

105. 105. The main physiological function of the vorticose veins is:

a) regulation of intraocular pressure

b) outflow of venous blood from the tissues of the posterior part of the eye

c) thermoregulation of eye tissues

d) ensuring normal trophism of the retina

106. 106. Proteins make up the total mass of the lens:

a) more than 70%

b) more than 30%

107. 107. The refractive power of the lens in an adult is on average:

108. 108. From the layer of large vessels of the choroid,….vorticose veins are formed

a) from 2 to 3

b) from 4 to 6

c) from 8 to 9

109. 109. By about 1 year of a child’s life, the following layers of the retina disappear in the macular area

a) from the second to the third

b) from third to fourth

c) from five to nine

d) from sixth to eighth

110. 110. Choroidal vessels are most clearly visible during ophthalmoscopy in:

a) blondes

b) brown-haired

c) brunettes

d) people of the black race

e) albinos

111. 111. In a healthy adult, the ratio of the caliber of the arteries and veins of the retina is normally:

112. 112. Electroretinogram reflects the functional state:

a) inner layers of the retina

b) outer layers of the retina

c) subcortical visual centers

d) cortical visual centers

113. 113. The threshold of electrical sensitivity reflects the functional state:

a) outer layers of the retina

b) inner layers of the retina

c) papillomacular bundle of the optic nerve

d) subcortical visual centers

e) cortical visual centers

114. 114. The lability index, measured by the critical frequency of phosphene disappearance, characterizes the functional state:

a) outer layers of the retina

b) inner layers of the retina

c) pathways (papillomacular bundle)

d) subcortical centers of the visual analyzer

115. 115. An electroencephalogram performed during a comprehensive examination of a patient with damage to the visual analyzer allows one to judge the functional state of:

a) outer layers of the retina

b) conductive pathways of the visual analyzer

c) cortical and (partly) subcortical visual centers

d) inner layers of the retina

116. 116. Normal visual acuity in a newborn child is:

a) thousandths of a unit

117. 117. Visual acuity in children 6 months of age is normally

118. 118. Normal visual acuity in children 3 years of age is:

d) 0.6 and above

e) 0.8 and above

119. 119. Normal visual acuity in children 5 years of age is:

e) 0.7-0.8 and above

120. 120. Visual acuity in children 7 years of age is normally equal to:

3. Refraction and accommodation

Please indicate one correct answer

121. 121. The refraction of an optical system is called:

a) a state closely related to convergence

b) refractive power of the optical system, expressed in diopters

c) the ability of an optical system to neutralize light passing through it

d) reflection by the optical system of rays incident on it

e) a system of lenses located at a certain distance from each other

122. 122. The normal power of physical refraction of the human eye is:

a) from 10 to 20D

b) from 21 to 51D

c) from 52 to 71D

d) from 72 to 91D

d) from 91 to 100d

123. 123. The following types of clinical refraction of the eye are distinguished:

a) permanent and non-permanent

b) disbinocular and anisometropic

c) cornea and lens

d) static and dynamic

124. 124. Static clinical refraction of the eye reflects:

a) refractive power of the cornea

b) true clinical refraction of the eye in a state of resting accommodation

c) refractive power of the lens

d) the refractive power of the optical system of the eye in relation to the retina with active accommodation

125. 125. Dynamic clinical refraction of the eye is understood as:

a) the refractive power of the optical system of the eye in relation to the retina with active accommodation

Book

VC. Balsevich - Corresponding Member of the Russian Academy of Education, Doctor of Biology. Sciences, Professor of the Russian State University of Physical Education, Chief Editor of the journal “Physical Culture: Education, Training, Training”,