Neurology qualification test. Proficiency test in neurology The appearance of clinical signs of chromosomal diseases is observed

NEUROLOGY QUALIFICATION TEST
Section 1. CLINICAL ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM. TOPIC DIAGNOSIS
01.1. When the abducens nerve is damaged, paralysis of the oculomotor muscle occurs

a) top straight

b) outer line

c) lower straight

d) lower oblique

e) upper oblique

01.2. Mydriasis occurs when

a) the upper portion of the large cell nucleus of the oculomotor nerve

b) the lower portion of the large cell nucleus of the oculomotor nerve

c) small cell accessory nucleus of the oculomotor nerve

d) middle unpaired nucleus

e) nuclei of the medial longitudinal bundle

01.3. If the upper limit of conduction disorders of pain sensitivity is determined at the level of T 10 dermatome, the spinal cord lesion is localized at the level of the segment

a) T 6 or T 7

b) T 8 or T 9

c) T 9 or T 10

d) T 10 or T 11

e) T 11 or T 12

01.4. With central paralysis, there is

a) muscle atrophy

b) increased tendon reflexes

c) violation of sensitivity according to the polyneuritic type

d) violations of the electrical excitability of nerves and muscles

e) fibrillar twitches

01.5. Choreic hyperkinesis occurs when the

a) paleostriatum

b) neostriatum

c) medial globus pallidus

d) lateral pale ball

e) cerebellum

01.6. The fibers of deep sensitivity for the lower extremities are located in a thin bundle of the posterior cords in relation to the midline

a) laterally

b) medially

c) ventrally

d) dorsally

e) ventrolaterally

01.7. The fibers of deep sensitivity for the trunk and upper extremities are located in the wedge-shaped bundle of the posterior cords in relation to the midline

a) laterally

b) medially

c) ventrally

d) dorsally

e) ventromedial

01.8. The fibers of pain and temperature sensitivity (lateral loop) join the fibers of deep and tactile sensitivity (medial loop)

a) in the medulla oblongata

b) in the bridge of the brain

c) in the legs of the brain

d) in the visual tubercle

e) in the cerebellum

01.9. The main inhibitory mediator is

a) acetylcholine

c) norepinephrine

d) adrenaline

e) dopamine

01.10. All afferent pathways of the striopallidary system terminate

a) in the lateral nucleus of the pale ball

b) in the striatum

c) in the medial nucleus of the pale ball

d) in the subthalamic nucleus

e) in the cerebellum

01.11. Unsteadiness in the Romberg position when closing the eyes is greatly increased if there is ataxia.

a) cerebellar

b) sensitive

c) vestibular

d) frontal

e) mixed

01.12. The regulation of muscle tone by the cerebellum when changing the position of the body in space is carried out through

a) red nucleus

b) Lewis body

c) black matter

d) striatum

e) blue spot

01.13. Binasal hemianopia occurs with a lesion

c) visual radiance

d) visual tracts

e) black matter

01.14. Concentric narrowing of the visual field leads to compression

a) optic tract

b) optic chiasm

c) external geniculate body

d) visual radiance

e) black matter

01.15. Damage to the optic tract results in hemianopsia

a) binasal

b) homonymous

c) bitemporal

d) lower quadrant

e) upper quadrant

0116. Homonymous hemianopsia is not observed in lesions

a) optic tract

b) optic chiasm

c) visual radiance

d) internal capsule

e) optic nerve

01.17. Pathway passes through the superior cerebellar peduncles

a) posterior spinal cord

b) anterior dorsal-cerebellar

c) fronto-bridge-cerebellar

d) occipital-temporal-bridge-cerebellar

e) dorsal-cerebellar

01.18. Olfactory hallucinations are observed with the defeat

a) olfactory tubercle

b) olfactory bulb

c) temporal lobe

d) parietal lobe

e) frontal lobe

01.19. Bitemporal hemianopia is observed with lesions

a) central divisions of the optic chiasm

b) external divisions of the optic chiasm

c) optic tracts of the optic chiasm

d) visual radiance on both sides

e) frontal lobe

01.20. True urinary incontinence occurs when

a) paracentral lobes of the anterior central gyrus

b) cervical spinal cord

c) lumbar enlargement of the spinal cord

d) cauda equina of the spinal cord

e) bridge of the brain

01.21. With paresis of the gaze up and a violation of convergence, the focus is localized

a) in the upper parts of the brain bridge

b) in the lower parts of the brain bridge

c) in the dorsal tegmentum of the midbrain

d) in the legs of the brain

e) in the medulla oblongata

01.22. Half lesion of the diameter of the spinal cord (Brown-Sekara syndrome) is characterized by central paralysis on the side of the focus in combination

a) with a violation of all types of sensitivity - on the opposite

b) with impaired pain and temperature sensitivity on the side of the focus

c) with a violation of deep sensitivity on the side of the focus and pain and temperature sensitivity - on the opposite

d) with a violation of all types of sensitivity on the side of the focus

e) with polyneuritic disorders of sensitivity

01.23. When the cerebellar vermis is affected, ataxia is observed

a) dynamic

b) vestibular

c) static

d) sensitive

e) frontal

01.24. With peripheral paresis of the left facial nerve, convergent strabismus due to the left eye, hyperesthesia in the middle zone of Zelder on the left, pathological reflexes on the right, the focus is localized

a) in the left pontocerebellar angle

b) in the right hemisphere of the cerebellum

c) in the bridge of the brain on the left

d) in the region of the apex of the pyramid of the left temporal bone

e) in the peduncle of the brain

01.25. Convulsive seizure begins with the toes of the left foot in the case of the location of the focus

a) in the anterior adversive field on the right

b) in the upper part of the posterior central gyrus on the right

c) in the lower part of the anterior central gyrus on the right

d) in the upper part of the anterior central gyrus on the right

e) in the lower part of the posterior central gyrus on the right

01.26. The combination of pain and herpetic eruptions in the external auditory canal and auricle, impaired auditory and vestibular function is a sign of a node lesion

a) vestibular

b) pterygopalatine

c) cranked

d) Gasserova

e) stellate

01.27. Central paresis of the left hand occurs when the focus is localized

a) in the upper parts of the anterior central gyrus on the left

b) in the lower parts of the anterior central gyrus on the left

c) from the posterior thigh of the internal capsule

d) in the knee of the internal capsule

e) in the middle section of the anterior central gyrus on the right

01.28. The cervical plexus is formed by the anterior branches of the spinal nerves and cervical segments.

01.29. The brachial plexus forms the anterior branches of the spinal nerves.

01.30. Nerve impulses are generated

a) cell nucleus

b) outer membrane

c) axon

d) neurofilaments

e) dendrites

01.31. Alexia is observed with a lesion

a) superior frontal gyrus

b) parahippocampal gyrus

c) thalamus

d) angular gyrus

e) bridge of the brain

01.32. On a section of the lower part of the medulla oblongata, nuclei are not distinguished

a) tender and wedge-shaped

b) spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve

c) hypoglossal nerves

d) facial, abducens nerves

01.33. The brainstem pons is composed of

a) red nuclei

b) nuclei of the trochlear nerve

c) nuclei of the oculomotor nerve

d) nuclei of the abducens nerve

e) nuclei of the hypoglossal nerves

01.34. Hemianesthesia, hemiataxia, hemianopsia are characteristic of the lesion

a) pale ball

b) caudate nucleus

c) red core

d) thalamus

e) black matter

01.35. Damage to the cauda equina of the spinal cord is accompanied by

a) flaccid paresis of the legs and impaired sensitivity of the radicular type

b) spastic paresis of the legs and pelvic disorders

c) violation of the deep sensitivity of the distal legs and urinary retention

d) spastic paraparesis of the legs without sensory disorders and dysfunction of the pelvic organs

e) violation of the deep sensitivity of the proximal legs and urinary retention

01.36. True astereognosis is caused by a lesion

a) frontal lobe

b) temporal lobe

c) parietal lobe

d) occipital lobe

e) cerebellum

01.37. Loss of the upper quadrants of the visual fields occurs with a lesion

a) external sections of the optic chiasm

b) lingual gyrus

c) deep parts of the parietal lobe

d) primary visual centers in the thalamus

e) optic nerve

01.38. Astereognosis occurs when

a) lingual gyrus of the parietal lobe

b) superior temporal gyrus

c) inferior frontal gyrus

d) superior parietal lobule

e) cerebellum

01.39. The closure of the reflex arc from the tendon of the biceps muscle of the shoulder occurs at the level of the following segments of the spinal cord

01.40. Association fibers connect

a) symmetrical parts of both hemispheres

b) asymmetrical parts of both hemispheres

c) cortex with thalamus and underlying sections (centrifugal and centripetal pathways)

d) different parts of the cortex of the same hemisphere

e) legs of the brain

01.41. A patient with visual agnosia

a) poorly sees surrounding objects, but recognizes them

b) sees objects well, but the shape seems distorted

c) does not see objects on the periphery of the visual fields

d) sees objects but does not recognize them

e) poorly sees surrounding objects and does not recognize them

01.42. Patient with motor aphasia

a) understands addressed speech, but cannot speak

b) does not understand the addressed speech and cannot speak

c) can speak but does not understand spoken language

d) can speak, but the speech is scrambled

e) can speak, but does not remember the names of objects

01.43. A patient with sensory aphasia

a) cannot speak and does not understand spoken language

b) understands addressed speech, but cannot speak

c) can speak but forgets the names of objects

d) does not understand the addressed speech, but controls his own speech

e) does not understand the addressed speech and does not control his own

01.44. Amnestic aphasia occurs when

a) frontal lobe

b) parietal lobe

c) the junction of the frontal and parietal lobes

d) the junction of the temporal and parietal lobes

e) occipital lobe

01.45. The combination of impaired swallowing and phonation, dysarthria, paresis of the soft palate, absence of a pharyngeal reflex and tetraparesis indicates a lesion

a) legs of the brain

b) bridge of the brain

c) medulla oblongata

d) tires of the midbrain

e) hypothalamus

01.46. The combination of paresis of the left half of the soft palate, deviation of the uvula to the right, increased tendon reflexes and pathological reflexes on the right limbs indicates a lesion

a) medulla oblongata at the level of the motor nucleus of the IX and X nerves on the left

b) medulla oblongata at the level of the XII nerve on the left

c) knee of the internal capsule on the left

d) posterior femur of the internal capsule on the left

e) hypothalamus

01.47. With alternating Miyyar-Gubler syndrome, the focus is

a) at the base of the brain stem

b) in the posterolateral part of the medulla oblongata

c) in the region of the red nucleus

d) at the base of the lower part of the brain bridge

e) in the hypothalamus

01.48. Features of the violation of the pilomotor reflex are of topical and diagnostic significance in case of damage

a) quadrigemina

b) medulla oblongata

c) hypothalamus

d) spinal cord

e) peripheral nerves

01.49. For the defeat of the ventral half of the lumbar enlargement, the presence of

a) lower flaccid paraparesis

b) violations of pain sensitivity

c) dysfunction of the pelvic organs according to the central type

d) sensitive ataxia of the lower extremities

e) preserved deep sensitivity

01.50. Reflexes of oral automatism indicate damage to the tracts

a) corticospinal

b) corticonuclear

c) fronto-bridge-cerebellar

d) rubrospinal

e) dorsal-cerebellar

01.51. The grasping reflex (Yanishevsky) is noted with a lesion

a) parietal lobe

b) temporal lobe

c) frontal lobe

d) occipital lobe

e) hypothalamus

01.52. Auditory agnosia occurs when the

a) parietal lobe

b) frontal lobe

c) occipital lobe

d) temporal lobe

e) hypothalamus

01.53. Fauville's alternating syndrome is characterized by simultaneous involvement of nerves in the pathological process.

a) facial and efferent

b) facial and oculomotor

c) glossopharyngeal nerve and vagus

d) sublingual and additional

e) additional and block
01.54. Jugular foramen syndrome is characterized by nerve damage

a) glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory

b) wandering, accessory, sublingual

c) accessory, glossopharyngeal, sublingual

d) wandering, facial, trigeminal

e) wandering, oculomotor, abducent

01.55. Constructive apraxia occurs when

a) frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere

b) frontal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere

e) occipital lobes

01.56. A disorder of the body scheme is noted with a lesion

a) the temporal lobe of the dominant hemisphere

b) the temporal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere

c) parietal lobe of the dominant hemisphere

d) parietal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere

e) hypothalamus

01.57. Sensory aphasia occurs when

a) superior temporal gyrus

b) middle temporal gyrus

c) upper parietal lobule

d) lower parietal lobule

e) hypothalamus

01.58. Motor apraxia in the left hand develops with a lesion

a) genu corpus callosum

b) trunk of the corpus callosum

c) thickening of the corpus callosum

d) frontal lobe

e) occipital lobe

01.59. The segmental apparatus of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is represented by neurons of the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of segments

a) C 5 -T 10

b) T 1 -T 12

01.60. The caudal division of the segmental apparatus of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is represented by the neurons of the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of the segments

a) L 4 -L 5 -S 1

b) L 5 -S 1 -S 2

01.61. The ciliospinal center is located in the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of the segments

-Diseases caused by gene mutation

- Diseases that are detected in several relatives

+ Diseases presenting at birth

- Diseases that cannot be cured.

2. Hereditary diseases are:

+ Diseases whose etiology is mutations

- Illnesses that occur in relatives

- Congenital diseases

3. Sibs are:

-All relatives of the proband;

-Uncles of the proband;

- Proband's parents

+ Brothers and sisters of the proband from the same parents.

4. Proband is:

-Healthy person who applied to medical genetic counseling

+ The person from whom the collection of a pedigree begins.

-Gene responsible for regulation of transcription

5. All of the following are typical for hereditary diseases, except:

-Accumulation of cases of the same disease in the family

- Damage to multiple body systems

+ Contagiousness (contagiousness) of the disease

6. Hereditary diseases include the following diseases, except:

-Genetic diseases of somatic cells

-Diseases arising from incompatibility of mother and fetus by antigens

-Multifactorial diseases (diseases with hereditary predisposition)

+Transmissible diseases

7. Chromosomal diseases occur due to the following mutations, except:

+Gene mutations

-Chromosomal mutations

-Genomic mutations

8. The transmission of a chromosomal disease is characterized by:

+ Transmission of a chromosomal disease in most cases is absent due to the death of the patient or the lack of offspring

- Transmission of chromosomal disease in most cases occurs from generation to generation

- Transmission of chromosomal disease in most cases occurs through one or more generations

9. The appearance of clinical signs of chromosomal diseases is observed:

-In early childhood

+ In most cases - before birth

-After exposure to specific environmental factors during life

10. A characteristic feature of chromosomal diseases is:

- Variety of clinical manifestations only in childhood

+ Similarity of clinical manifestations between different chromosomal diseases

- Variety of manifestations throughout life

11. The clinical picture of chromosomal diseases is characterized by: + A combination of congenital malformations, mental retardation or mental retardation, physical development delays, anomalies of the osteoarticular system,

- Hereditary metabolic disorders with secondary lesions of organs and systems

-Birth defects

- Correct B and C

12. What hereditary diseases are diagnosed using cytogenetic methods:

-monogenic diseases

-Multifactorial diseases

+Chromosomal diseases

13. Monogenic (synonymous with gene) diseases are subject to:

-Polygenic type of inheritance

+ Menlian type of inheritance

-Do not have a clear type of inheritance

14. What hereditary diseases do not belong to monogenic diseases:

+Genomic diseases

- Congenital malformations of monogenic etiology

- Hereditary metabolic diseases

15. The method of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) refers to:

-To cytogenetic methods

+To molecular genetic methods

-To biochemical methods

16. Multifactorial diseases are caused by:

- a large number of damaged genes

+ The combined effect of genetic and environmental factors

-Multiple activation of the affected gene

17. What hereditary diseases do not belong to multifactorial diseases:

- Common somatic diseases of middle age (hypertension, peptic ulcer, etc.)

- Common mental and nervous diseases (schizophrenia, manic-depressive psychosis, multiple sclerosis)

+ Hereditary metabolic diseases

18. What methods are not used to prove the multifactorial nature of the disease

-Research on the association of genetic markers with disease

- Clinical and genealogical

- twin

+ Cytogenetic method

19. Genetic markers include:

- AB0 blood group antigens

- Immunoglobulins class M

+ All of the above are correct.

20. The risk of developing a multifactorial disease in a patient does not depend on:

-number of blood relatives with the disease

- From the severity of the disease in blood relatives

+Molecular weight of the genetic material responsible for the development of a multifactorial disease

- Degrees of relationship with sick relatives of this disease

21. Preconception prevention of hereditary diseases is carried out:

-During the first two trimesters of pregnancy

+During the entire period starting a few months before conception and ending at 10 weeks of gestation

-In the first 12 weeks of embryonic development

22. Preconception prophylaxis should include:

+ Taking folic acid and B vitamins

- Semi-bed rest, restriction of heavy lifting

- Taking phenobarbital

23. Preconceptional prevention of hereditary diseases is aimed at reducing the risk of developing a child

- Monogenic diseases

+ Congenital malformations of a multifactorial nature

-Chromosomal disorders

24. What diseases are detected by the screening program? +Phenylketonuria

-Down's disease

-Polydactyly

25. What is prenatal diagnosis of hereditary diseases + Diagnosis of a hereditary disease in the fetus during fetal development

-Examination of the mother for the risk of a hereditary disease during pregnancy

- Screening program

The essence of the concept of “coma” is determined by:

- Violation of spontaneous breathing

-Swallowing and phonation disorders

-Lack of spontaneous speech

+Loss of consciousness.

Lumbar puncture is contraindicated in:

- Nasal liquorrhea

+Brainstem Dislocation Syndrome

- concussion

Blood in the cerebrospinal fluid is observed when:

- Meningitis

- Lumboischialgia

+ Subarachnoid hemorrhage

- cerebral infarction

If a patient has aphasia, it means that:

+ Brain

-Spinal cord

- Gasser knot

Dominant hemisphere in right-handers:

-Right

+Left

What are the clinical signs related to focal symptoms:

+ Paralysis, aphasia

-Congestive optic discs

- Strengthening of the vascular pattern on the survey craniogram

Which of the following symptoms is manifested by a general cerebral symptom?

+Increased intracranial pressure

- Loss of sensation

-Symptoms of nerve tension

These symptoms are a manifestation of hypertension syndrome (increased intracranial pressure), except for:

- Morning headaches, often with vomiting

- Decreased visual acuity

+Paralysis

Which of the signs indicates a neurological cause of coma?

+ Focal neurological symptoms

- Wide pupils

- Seizures

For the treatment of meningococcal meningitis, you should first choose:

-Clindamycin

-Tetracycline

-Kanamycin

+ Penicillin

For the treatment of status epilepticus, intravenous injections of the following drugs are primarily used, except:

-Relanium

-Depakina

+Teopental sodium

How many cells should be in a normal CSF analysis

+Up to 5 lymphocytes

-10-15 neutrophils

- Not a single cell

The presence of aphasia in a patient indicates:

+ Damage to the dominant hemisphere of the brain

-Injury to the hypoglossal nerve

- Enlargement of the third ventricle of the brain

The term epistatus means:

- Widespread, pronounced muscle contraction

+ Recurrent epileptic seizures, between which the patient does not regain consciousness

- Mental disorders in a patient with a long course of epilepsy

The first-line anticonvulsant drug for the treatment of unspecified epilepsy is:

+Valproic acid preparations

-Phenobarbital

-Relanium

-Magnesium sulfate

Inflammatory changes in the cerebrospinal fluid are a sign of:

+ Inflammation of the meninges (meningitis)

- Inflammation of the substance of the brain (encephalitis)

- Inflammation of the bones of the skull

Rigidity of the occipital muscles is checked as follows:

-Turn head to the right or left

-Palpate the occipital muscles, tilting the head back

+Bend the head to the chest and estimate the distance between the chin and the chest area

The lower symptom of Brudzinsky is defined as follows:

- In the position on the back, bend the legs at the knee joints at a right angle and tilt the head forward. If there is a reflex extension of the head, the symptom is considered positive.

- In the position of the patient on the back, the head is tilted forward and, if there is a response bending of the legs in the knee joints, the symptom is considered positive

+ In the position of the patient on the back, bend the leg at the knee and hip joint at right angles and then unbend the leg at the knee joint. A symptom is considered positive if, when the leg is extended at the knee, flexion is observed at the knee of the second leg.

When bitten by a tick, you must:

- Vaccinate on the first day after the bite

-Rinse the bite wound with an antiseptic, apply an ointment with an antiviral drug and get tested for tick-borne encephalitis

+ Contact the emergency room where seroprophylaxis of encephalitis with anti-tick immunoglobulin is carried out

All of the following drugs are used to prevent tick-borne encephalitis after a tick bite, except:

-Yodantipyrine

- Anti-mite immunoglobulin

+ Vaccines against tick-borne encephalitis

The removed tick must be brought in for testing for tick-borne encephalitis:

-In the first 2 hours after removal

+ In the first 48 hours after removal

-In the first 12 hours after removal

With subarachnoid hemorrhage, it is mandatory:

-Introduction of vikasol

-Introduction of ascorbic acid

+ Compliance with strict bed rest for 3 weeks and the exclusion of straining

A patient with myasthenia gravis is contraindicated:

-Diet rich in tyramine

- Overheating (taking hot baths, visiting the bath)

+ Drugs that disrupt neuromuscular transmission

Focal neurological symptoms are:

+ Symptoms arising from one or more local damage to the nervous system

- Slight impairment of neurological functions.

-Symptoms arising from lesions of the central nervous system

Bulging of a large fontanel in children is a sign of:

- Immaturity of the bones of the cranial vault

+ Increased intracranial pressure

-Prematurity

The average hospital stay for concussion is:

+14 days

- 1 month

- 3 days

A concussion refers to:

+ Mild traumatic brain injury.

- Moderate traumatic brain injury.

- Severe traumatic brain injury.

An open craniocerebral injury should be understood as:

- Any damage to the soft tissues of the head.

+ A wound with damage to the aponeurosis.

-Coincidence of the wound with a skull fracture.

Stroke is:

-inflammation of neurons

Any acute onset brain disease

+ Acute cerebrovascular accident

Why is the first administration of a bactericidal antibiotic for meningococcal meningitis carried out at a half dose?

-For the prevention of allergic complications

-To test the sensitivity of the pathogen to this drug

+Because there is a risk of iatrogenic endotoxic shock

The appearance of a rash on the patient's body according to the type of "stars in the sky" indicates:

- Development of polyneuritis

+ Development of meningococcal sepsis

- Carbon monoxide poisoning

If, during centrifugation of bloody cerebrospinal fluid, the supernatant has shades of yellow and is transparent, this may mean:

+ Hemolysis of erythrocytes, which means that the blood got into the cerebrospinal fluid a long time ago, and not at the time of puncture from an injured blood vessel

- Continued bleeding

-Increased levels of neutrophils in the cerebrospinal fluid

The contraction of the heart muscle is controlled by the brain with the help of which fibers:

-cerebellar

-pyramid path

+ Vegetative

At what age of a child is urinary incontinence during sleep considered a pathology

+From 5 years old

-From 3 years old

-From 2 years old

Peristalsis of the intestine is carried out with the help of which nerve fibers:

-Pyramidal motor

+ Vegetative

- Both pyramidal motor and autonomic

Home > Tests
NEUROLOGY QUALIFICATION TESTS

1) NEUROLOGICAL DISEASES IN CHILDREN AND ADOLESCENTS

001. The mass of the brain of a newborn is on average

V a) 1/8 of body weight

b) 1/12 of body weight

c) 1/20 of body weight

d) 1/4 of body weight

002. The most common form of neuron in humans are cells

a) unipolar

b) bipolar

V c) multipolar

d) pseudo-unipolar

e) a) and b) are correct

003. Transmission of a nerve impulse occurs

V a) in synapses

b) in mitochondria

c) in lysosomes

d) in the cytoplasm

004. The total amount of cerebrospinal fluid in a newborn is

005. The myelin sheath of the nerve fiber determines

a) axon length and conduction accuracy

V b) the speed of the nerve impulse

c) axon length

d) belonging to sensitive conductors

e) belonging to motor conductors

006. Neuroglia performs

V a) supporting and trophic function

b) support and secretory function

c) trophic and energy function

d) only secretory function

e) only the support function

007. Dura mater is involved in education

a) integumentary bones of the skull

V b) venous sinuses, cerebral sickle and cerebellum

c) vascular plexus

d) holes in the base of the skull

e) cranial sutures

008. The pressure of the cerebrospinal fluid in school-age children is normally

a) 15-20 mm of water. Art.

b) 60-80 mm of water. Art.

V c) 120-170 mm of water. Art.

d) 180-250 mm of water. Art.

e) 260-300 mm of water. Art.

009. Sympathetic cells lie

a) in the anterior horns

b) in the back horns

c) in the anterior and posterior horns

V d) mainly in the lateral horns

010. The spinal cord of a newborn ends at the level of the lower edge of the vertebra

a) XII chest

b) I lumbar

c) II lumbar

V d) III lumbar

011. The most pronounced hand-mouth reflex in children aged

V a) up to 2 months

b) up to 3 months

c) up to 4 months

d) up to 1 year

012. The grasping reflex is physiological in children aged

V a) up to 1-2 months

b) up to 3-4 months

c) up to 5-6 months

d) up to 7-8 months

013. Myeloencephalic postural reflexes include

a) asymmetric tonic cervical

b) symmetrical tonic cervical

c) tonic labyrinth

d) a) and b) are correct

V e) all of the above

014. Visual concentration on an object appears in children

V a) by the end of the first month of life

b) in the middle of the second month of life

c) at the beginning of the third month of life

d) by the end of the third month of life

015.The principle of reciprocity is

a) in relaxation of antagonists and agonists

b) in relaxation only agonists

c) in relaxation only of antagonists

V d) in the reduction of agonists and relaxation of antagonists

016. With ptosis, pupil dilation on the left and right-sided hemiparesis, the focus is located

a) in the quadrigemina

b) in the inner capsule on the left

c) in the bridge of the brain on the left

V d) in the left leg of the brain

017. Purulent meningitis is more common in children of age

V a) early

b) preschool

c) junior school

d) high school

018. Hemorrhagic rash in meningococcemia in children is a consequence of

a) allergies

b) immunological reactivity

V c) vascular damage and pathology of the blood coagulation system

d) all of the above

019. Recurrent purulent meningitis is more common in children

a) staphylococcal infection

b) infancy

c) with immunodeficiency

V d) with liquorrhea

d) allergic

020. In infectious-toxic shock, it is preferable to use

a) penicillin

b) chloramphenicol

V c) ampicillin

d) gentamicin

e) cephalosporins

021. Contact abscesses of otogenic origin in children are usually localized

a) in the brain stem

b) in the occipital lobe

c) in the frontal lobe

V d) in the temporal lobe

022. A single dose of nitrosepam (radedorm) administered to children aged 1 to 5 years is

023. Children are prescribed diazepam in a daily dose

a) 0.05-0.1 mg/kg

V b) 0.12-0.8 mg/kg

c) 1-1.5 mg/kg

d) 1.5-2 mg/kg

024. A single dose of phenibut for children under 8 years old is

a) up to 5 years

V b) up to 7 years

c) up to 10 years

d) up to 12 years

026. For children aged 6 to 12 months, paracetamol is prescribed in a single dose

027. The daily dose of sonapax (thioridazine) for children of early school age is

028.

a) stability

V b) intensity fluctuation by day

c) fluctuation of intensity by months

d) intensity is determined only by age

029.In the development of generalized tic in children, the role of hereditary factors

a) absent

b) insignificant

V c) significant

d) depends on the age of the parents

e) depends on the gender of the patient

030. Shoulder-scapular-facial form of myopathy (Landuzi - Dejerine) has

V a) autosomal dominant type of inheritance

b) autosomal recessive type of inheritance

c) autosomal recessive, X-linked type of inheritance

d) autosomal recessive and autosomal dominant type of inheritance

e) the type of inheritance is unknown

031. When Charcot-Marie neural amyotrophy occurs in children

a) only flaccid paresis of the legs

b) only flaccid paresis of the hands

V c) flaccid paresis of the arms and legs

d) only paresis of the muscles of the body

e) paresis of the muscles of the arms, legs and torso

032. With myasthenia in children, the following vegetative disorders are observed

a) excessive sweating

b) arterial hypotension

c) functional changes in the heart

d) functional changes in the gastrointestinal tract

V e) all of the above

033. Damage to the nervous system in hereditary metabolic disorders in children is mainly associated

a) with impaired cerebral circulation

b) with endocrine disorders

V c) with toxic damage to the neuron by metabolic products

d) with neuron hypoxia

e) with a change in cell permeability

034. The duration of dietary treatment of a patient with phenylketonuria is

a) 2 to 6 months

b) 2 months to 1 year

c) 2 months to 3 years

V d) from 2 months to 5-6 years

d) whole life

035. The combination of gross delay in psychomotor development with hyperkinesis, convulsive syndrome and atrophy of the optic nerves in children under 2 years old is characteristic

a) for a disease with a violation of amino acid metabolism

b) for carbohydrate metabolism disease

c) for mucopolysaccharidosis

d) for lipidosis

V e) for leukodystrophy

036. Shershevsky-Turner syndrome occurs due to violations

V a) sex chromosomes

b) autosomes

c) amino acid metabolism

d) vitamin metabolism

e) carbohydrate metabolism

037. The characteristics of Down's disease include all of the following, except

a) clown face

b) oligophrenia

c) speech disorders

d) motor disorders

V e) pyramidal insufficiency

038. With Shershevsky-Turner syndrome, the karyotype of the patient

039. Patients with Down's disease usually have all of the following symptoms, except

a) heart disease

b) obesity

c) polydactyly

d) hypospadias

V e) bone fragility

040. Shershevsky-Turner syndrome is more common

V a) in girls

b) in boys

c) for both sexes

d) adults only

041.Marfan syndrome is characterized by

a) arachnodactyly

b) heart defects

c) subluxation of the lens

d) mental retardation

V e) all of the above symptoms

042. With hepato-cerebral dystrophy, muscle tone is changed by type

a) hypotension

b) pyramidal spasticity

V c) extrapyramidal rigidity

d) dystonia

e) increases in the mixed extrapyramidal and pyramidal type

043. Large body weight at birth, Cushingoid features, enlargement of the heart, liver, spleen, microcephaly (rarely hydrocephalus) are characteristic

a) for congenital rubella

b) for thyrotoxic embryofetopathy

V c) for diabetic embryopathy

d) for fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

044. Myxedema-like syndrome with mental retardation is observed in newborns from mothers suffering from

a) hyperthyroidism

b) hypothyroidism

V c) diffuse toxic goiter

d) focal ("island") goiter

e) struma

045. Primary hypothyroidism in children is characterized by

a) dry and itchy skin

c) brittle "matte" hair

d) gross delay in psychomotor development

V e) all of the above

046. When microcephaly in children is usually

a) the brain is relatively larger than the skull

b) the brain is much smaller than the skull

V c) a decrease in the cerebral skull approximately corresponds to a decrease in the brain

d) only the brain skull decreases relative to the facial

e) the brain and facial skull decrease in proportion

047. Secondary microcephaly in children develops

a) in the prenatal period

b) only postnatally

V c) in the perinatal period and in the first months of life

d) at any age

e) always over the age of 1 year

048. The prognosis of microcephaly in children is determined

a) growth rate of the head

b) the size of the brain skull

c) the severity of the motor defect

V d) the degree of mental retardation

e) the date of initiation of therapy

049. Children with microcephaly are usually observed by a neurologist

a) up to 15 years

b) before high school age

c) before preschool age

050. Excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid underlies hydrocephalus

a) external

b) internal

c) open or communicating

V d) hyperproductive

e) resorptive

051. Most hydrocephalus in children are

a) traumatic

b) toxic

c) hypoxic

V d) congenital

e) acquired

052. With compensated hydrocephalus in children, intracranial pressure

a) persistently high

V b) normal

c) reduced

d) unstable with an upward trend

e) unstable with a downward trend

053. In the most severe cases, hydrocephalus in children develops

a) optic neuritis

V b) hydroanencephaly

c) pyramidal insufficiency

d) dystrophy of the subcortical nodes

e) damage to the cerebellum and its connections

054. A child with congenital hydrocephalus is usually born

V a) with a normal or slightly enlarged head

b) with an increase in head circumference by 4-5 cm

c) with a reduced head

d) with an increase in head circumference by 5-8 cm

055. Pronounced tetraparesis, mental retardation, pseudobulbar syndrome are characteristic

V a) for hydroanencephaly

b) for occlusive hydrocephalus

c) for external hydrocephalus

d) for hydrocephalus after birth trauma

e) for communicating hydrocephalus

056. Vegetative disorders are especially pronounced in children with occlusion at the level

a) lateral ventricle

V b) III ventricle

c) IV ventricle

d) at any level

057. Strengthening of digital impressions on the craniogram is characteristic of hydrocephalus

a) only outside

V b) occlusal

c) communicating

058. A sharp decrease in the ring of luminescence is characteristic of hydrocephalus

a) external

b) communicating

V d) occlusive in the initial period

e) occlusive with hydroanencephaly

a) viral infections

b) with intestinal infections

c) with neuroinfections

d) with cranial injuries

V e) with cranial injuries and infections

060. The appearance of shortness of breath in children when taking diacarb indicates

a) metabolic alkalosis

V b) about metabolic acidosis

c) violation of cerebral hemodynamics

d) about dehydration

e) damage to the respiratory center

061.In the course of perinatal encephalopathy secrete

a) acute period

b) early recovery period

c) late recovery period

V d) all listed periods

062. In full-term babies are most often observed

a) subdural hemorrhage

b) subarachnoid hemorrhages

d) periventricular hemorrhages

V e) parenchymal, subarachnoid hemorrhages

063. Severe muscular hypotension of newborns is a reflection

a) cerebral hypoxia, immaturity

b) trauma of the brain and spinal cord

c) brain damage by indirect bilirubin

d) degeneration of the anterior horns of the spinal cord

V e) all of the above reasons are possible

064. In the initial period of hemolytic disease in newborns, it is used

a) blood transfusion

b) phototherapy

c) phenobarbital

d) prednisolone

V e) all of the above

065.Atrophy of the hand, trophic disorders and Horner's symptom are typical

a) for Erb-Duchenne paresis

V b) for paresis Dezherin - Klumpke

c) for total paresis of the arm

d) for paresis of the diaphragm

e) for tetraparesis

066.In the complex therapy of obstetric paralysis are used

a) massage, exercise therapy

b) transverse electrophoresis of eufillin and nicotinic acid

c) orthopedic styling

d) acupuncture

V e) all of the above methods

067. Structural defect of the brain in cerebral palsy can affect the development

a) only the motor sphere

b) only speeches

V c) the brain as a whole

d) has no effect

068. Cerebral palsy and perinatal encephalopathy have

a) clinical community

b) commonality only in terms of the time of exposure to the damaging factor

c) only etiological commonality

V d) common etiology and time of damage

e) flow uniformity

069. Exact timing of brain damage in cerebral palsy

a) never install

V b) are established only in some cases

c) are always precisely known by accompanying signs

d) are established only morphologically

070.The main pathogenetic factors of cerebral palsy include

a) infectious

b) toxic

c) hypoxic

e) traumatic

V e) all of the above

071. Impairment of cerebral circulation in the intra- or neonatal period, leading to cerebral palsy, is usually preceded by

a) intrauterine infection

b) metabolic disorders

V c) intrauterine hypoxia or asphyxia

d) trauma of a pregnant woman

e) pregnancy allergy

072. Spastic diplegia in children is noted

a) only central paresis of the distal legs

b) only paraparesis of the legs

c) only tetraparesis

V d) paraparesis of the legs or tetraparesis

073.Converging strabismus in spastic diplegia is usually associated with a lesion

a) nuclei of the abducens nerve on one side

b) nuclei of the abducens nerve on both sides

c) abducens nerve roots at the base of the brain

d) reticular formation of the brain stem

V e) cortical center of gaze on both sides

074. The predominance of damage to the proximal parts of the hands over the distal ones in central tetraparesis is characteristic

a) for spastic diplegia only in infants

b) for double hemiplegia only in infants

V c) for spastic diplegia at any age

d) for double hemiplegia at any age

e) for natal spinal cord injury

075. The prevalence of cerebral palsy is per 1000 child population

a) 0.5 and below

c) 5 or more

d) 10 or more

e) 15 or more

076. A child with muscular hypotension in the first 2-3 months of life may develop cerebral palsy in the form

a) atonic-astatic

b) spastic diplegia

c) hyperkinetic

V d) any of the above

077.Hyperkinetic form of cerebral palsy is characterized by the presence of

a) athetosis

b) choreic hyperkinesis

c) torsion dystonia

d) choreoathetosis

V e) all of the above

078. Diagnosis of double hemiplegia is possible in children

V a) in the first month of life

b) from 1.5 years

c) from birth

d) from about 5-8 months of age

e) about 1 year

079. Hearing loss in children with cerebral palsy is more common

a) with spastic diplegia

b) with double hemiplegia

c) with hemiparetic form on the side of paresis

V d) with hyperkinetic form after kernicterus

e) with atonic-astatic form

080. Cerebral palsy in the first months of life can be suspected based on

a) risk factors for pregnancy and childbirth

b) pathological postural activity

c) a clear delay in motor and mental development

d) violations of muscle tone

V e) all of the above

081. During 2-3 years of life, a child with cerebral palsy must be educated

a) stereognosis

b) praxis

c) spatial orientation

d) pre-speech and speech skills

V e) all of the above skills

082. Anticholinergic drugs (cyclodol, ridinol, tropacin) are indicated for cerebral palsy

V a) with extrapyramidal rigidity, athetosis, torsion dystonia

b) not shown

c) shown in atonic-astatic form

d) are indicated in the presence of choreic hyperkinesis

083. In childhood, especially at an early age, the force of a mechanical shock softens

a) lack of tight fusion of cranial sutures

b) elasticity of the integumentary tissues of the skull

c) a relative increase in the subarachnoid space

V d) all of the above

084. In the presence of meningeal syndrome after a traumatic brain injury in children, it is necessary

a) electroencephalography

b) biochemical blood test

c) determination of visual acuity and examination of the fundus

V d) spinal puncture

e) X-ray of the base of the skull

085.Most often after a concussion in children is observed

a) epileptic syndrome

b) neurosis-like syndrome

c) hypothalamic syndrome

d) hydrocephalic syndrome

V e) cerebrosthenic syndrome

086. The focus of brain contusion often occurs in children

a) only in the impact area

b) only in the brain stem

V c) in the area of impact or anti-impact

d) only subtentorially

e) in the region of the subcortical nodes

087. The outcome of brain contusion in children can be

a) traumatic arachnoiditis

b) organic cerebral defect

V c) systemic neurosis

d) traumatic epilepsy

e) cerebrasthenic and hypertensive-hydrocephalic syndrome

088. In childhood with trauma are more common

V a) shell hemorrhages

b) parenchymal hemorrhages

c) intraventricular hemorrhage

d) parenchymal and intraventricular hemorrhages

089. Epidural hematoma is often observed in children

V a) with a fracture of the bones of the cranial vault

b) with a fracture of the base of the skull

c) with a fracture of only the inner plate

d) only with a linear fracture

090.Clinical manifestations of traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage usually develop in children

a) subacute

b) after the "light" period

c) undulating

e) the initial period is asymptomatic

091. When a fracture of the base of the skull in children often occurs

a) epidural hematoma

b) subarachnoid hemorrhage

c) subaponeurotic hematoma

d) hemiparesis

V e) liquorrhea

092. Disability certificate from childhood after a spinal cord injury is issued

a) only for children of school age

V b) depending on the nature of the residual phenomena

c) only in the presence of tetraparesis

d) only at an early age

093.Sanatorium treatment for patients with spinal cord injury is indicated in children

a) after 1-2 months

b) after 2-3 months

V c) after 5-6 months

d) after 1 year

094. Contraindications to sanatorium treatment of children after spinal cord injury are

a) paresis and paralysis

b) sensitive disorders

V c) urination disorders and bedsores

d) spinal deformity

e) muscle spasms

095. In order to prevent the development of persistent cerebrovascular disease after an acute period of traumatic brain injury, it is recommended to prescribe to children

a) nootropics

b) lipocerebrin

c) phytin, calcium glycerophosphate

d) vitamins

V e) all of the above

096. Disorders arising from concussion of the spinal cord in children

a) are only local

b) always spread throughout the spinal cord

c) localized only in the anterior and lateral cords

d) localized only in the gray matter

V e) have a widespread or local character

097. With a partial rupture of the spinal cord in children, it is possible

a) almost complete recovery

V b) partial recovery

c) there is no positive dynamics

d) positive dynamics only at an early age

098. With a complete rupture of the spinal cord in children, recovery

V a) does not happen

b) is partial

c) only sensitivity improves

d) partial recovery only in young children

099. In case of a fracture of a vertebra, its displacement and dislocation,

a) subarachnoid hemorrhage

V b) syndrome of compression of the spinal cord and roots

c) widespread polyradiculoneuritis

d) damage to the anterior horns of the spinal cord

e) serous meningitis

100. In early childhood, the cause of convulsive seizures is

V a) lack of pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

b) lack of calcium pantothenate (vitamin B5)

c) lack of folic acid (vitamin B12)

101. Secondary generalized epilepsy occurs in children against the background of

a) allergies

b) immunodeficiency

V c) organic cerebral defect

d) an infectious disease

e) traumatic brain injury

102. The group of high "risk" for epilepsy should include children

a) with febrile convulsions at an early age

b) with affective respiratory paroxysms

c) with an organic cerebral defect

d) with a hereditary burden of epilepsy

V e) with all the listed factors

103. Phenobarbital for young children should be combined with prescription

b) sodium bicarbonate

c) magnesium sulfate

V d) calcium

104. Gradual withdrawal of anticonvulsant treatment is possible in children

a) 1-2 years after the last seizure

b) 7-10 years after the last seizure

c) with positive EEG dynamics, but depending on the last seizure

V d) 3-5 years after the seizure with normalization of the EEG

e) in puberty

105. Patients with epilepsy or epileptic syndrome are registered with a pediatric neurologist

a) do not consist

b) consist only at an early age

V c) consist in the absence of mental changes and mental equivalents

d) all patients under 15 years of age

106. Children of preschool and school age are dominated by fears

a) darkness

b) loneliness

c) animals that scared the child

d) characters of fairy tales, movies

V e) all of the above

107. In the pre- and pubertal periods, fear is more often noted

a) no specific content

c) sickness and death

V d) animals and people

108. In pre- and pubertal periods, fear is often accompanied by

a) hallucinations

c) convulsions

d) pronounced vegetative reaction

V e) urinary incontinence

109. Stuttering mainly develops with age

V a) up to 5 years

b) junior school

c) high school

d) prepubertal

110. Neurotic tics are most frequent in the age

a) up to 3 years

b) 3 to 5 years

V c) from 5 to 12 years

d) from 12 to 16 years old

e) over 16 years old

111. The presence of enuresis occurs in children

a) over 2 years old

V b) over 4 years old

c) over 6 years old

d) over 8 years old

e) over 10 years old

Bibliographic index
Belarusian-Polish scientific and practical seminar = Bialorusko-polski naukovo-praktyczny seminarium: abstract. report, 9-11 Oct. 2002, Brest, Rep. Belarus.
Unified qualification guide (2)
Directory
1. The section "Qualification characteristics of positions of workers in the field of healthcare" of the Unified Qualification Directory for the positions of managers, specialists and employees (hereinafter referred to as the CSA) is intended to facilitate the correct selection
The program was approved at: a methodological meeting of the Department of Social and Forensic Psychiatry of the FPPOM them. I. M. Sechenov minutes of the meeting
Program
The issues of improving postgraduate education in psychiatry are becoming very relevant at the present time, both in connection with the growth of mental morbidity in the population, and with the emergence of new areas of psychiatric science and practice.

TESTS ON PRIVATE NEUROLOGY.

TOPIC 1. VASCULAR DISEASES OF THE BRAIN.

1. The vertebrobasilar and carotid systems of cerebral blood flow are anastomosed through the artery:

1. front connecting

2. back connecting

3. eye

4. meninges

2. Anterior communicating artery - anastomosis between the arteries:

1. carotid and basilar

2. two anterior cerebral

3. two vertebral

4. middle and anterior medulla

3. The circle of Willis can provide adequate cerebral blood flow in arterial thrombosis

1. middle cerebral

2. posterior cerebral

3. internal carotid

4. external carotid

4. Pressure in the large vessels of the arterial circle of the brain:

1. higher in the carotid system

2. higher in the vertebrobasilar system

3. same

5. Blood in large cerebral vessels under physiological conditions:

1. mixes in the basilar system

2. mixes in the carotid system

3. do not mix

6. The constancy of cerebral blood flow is ensured by:

1. system of autoregulation of cerebral circulation

2. autonomic nervous system

3. brain stem

7. Cerebral blood flow in a healthy person does not depend on general hemodynamics with fluctuations in blood pressure between:

1. 100 - 200 mmHg

2. 60 - 200 mmHg

3. 60 - 250 mmHg

8. When blood pressure rises, cerebral vessels:

1. Taper

2. do not change the diameter of the lumen

3. expand

9. With a decrease in the oxygen content in the arterial blood, the cerebral vessels:

1. Taper

2. expand

3. do not change the diameter of the lumen

10. With a decrease in the content of carbon dioxide in the blood, the cerebral vessels:

1. Taper

2. do not change the diameter of the lumen

3. expand

11. Onset in hemorrhagic stroke by hematoma type:

1. sudden

2. increase in symptoms over hours

3. flickering symptoms

12. Hemorrhage in the brain develops, as a rule:

1. at night while sleeping

2. in the morning after sleep

3. during the day during active activity

13. Headache with cerebral hemorrhage:

1. not typical

2. sudden acute

3. moderate

14. Meningeal symptoms in cerebral hemorrhage occur:

1. almost always

3. do not meet

15. The skin of a patient with cerebral hemorrhage more often:

1. pale

2. regular painting

3. hyperemic

16. Liquor in hemorrhagic stroke:

1. bloody

2. opalescent

3. colorless

17. ECHO-EG with hemorrhage in the brain parenchyma /by type of hematoma/:

1. M-ECHO without bias

2. M-ECHO displacement greater than 3 mm

3. M-ECHO displacement is greater than 14 mm Answer: 2

18. In the blood test for hemorrhagic stroke:

2. leukopenia

3. leukocytosis

19. The most common picture of the fundus in ischemic stroke:

2. hemorrhages in the retina

3. retinal angiosclerosis

4. congestive optic disc

20. Consciousness in ischemic stroke more often:

3. not broken

21. Circle of Willis includes arteries:

1. anterior cerebral

2. front connecting

3. eye

4. middle brain

5. rear cerebral

6. back connecting

7. superior cerebellar

Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5, 6.

22. The density of the capillary network in the brain is proportional to:

1. number of nerve cells

2. surface area of nerve cells

3. intensity of functioning of nerve cells

Answer: 2, 3.

23. Focal symptoms characteristic of thrombosis of the right middle cerebral artery:

1. sensory aphasia

2. left-sided central hemiparesis

3. left-sided hemianopia

4. swallowing disorders

5. right-sided hemihypesthesia

Answer: 2, 3.

24. Focal symptoms characteristic of thrombosis of the anterior cerebral artery:

1. visual impairment

2. central paresis of the leg

3. central paresis of the arm

4. mental disorders

5. meningeal symptoms

Answer: 2, 4.

25. Focal symptoms characteristic of thrombosis of the posterior cerebral artery:

1. homonymous hemianopsia

2. visual agnosia

3. central hemiparesis

4. motor aphasia

5. coma

Answer: 1, 2.

26. Focal symptoms characteristic of thrombosis of the vertebral artery:

1. alternating syndrome

2. cerebellar ataxia

3. nystagmus

4. headache

5. meningeal symptoms

Answer: 1, 2, 3.

27. Focal symptoms characteristic of thrombosis of the basilar artery:

1. damage to the cranial nerves

2. tetraparesis

3. disorder of consciousness

Answer: 1, 2.

28. Etiological factors of ischemic stroke:

1. hypertension

2. atherosclerosis

3. heart rhythm disorders

4. systemic vasculitis

5. blood diseases

Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

29. Etiological factors of cerebral hemorrhage:

1. hypertension

2. arteriovenous malformations

3. stenosis of intracranial vessels

4. systemic vasculitis

5. blood diseases

6. embolism in coronary artery disease

7. secondary renal hypertension

Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5, 7.

30. Hemorrhagic strokes include:

1. thrombotic strokes

2. parenchymal hemorrhages

3. intrathecal hemorrhages

4. ventricular hemorrhages

5. embolic strokes

6. combined forms of hemorrhages

Answer: 2, 3, 4, 6.

31. Hemorrhage in the brain develops as a result of:

1. vessel rupture

2. thrombosis

3. diapedesis

Answer: 1, 3.

32. Symptoms characteristic of hemorrhagic stroke by hematoma type:

1. sudden onset

2. flickering symptoms

3. impaired consciousness

4. meningeal symptoms

5. high blood pressure

Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5.

33. Symptoms characteristic of subarachnoid hemorrhage:

1. sudden headache

2. hemiparesis

3. gradual increase in symptoms

4. meningeal symptoms

Answer: 1, 4.

34. Symptoms characteristic of parenchymal hemorrhage:

1. disturbance of consciousness

2. hemiplegia

3. increased blood pressure

4. flickering symptoms

5. gaze paralysis

6. Kernig's symptom

Answer: 1, 2, 3, 5, 6.

35. Ischemic non-embolic stroke is characterized by the onset:

1. sharpest

2. gradual /several hours/

3. in the morning after sleep

4. after psycho-emotional stress

5. after taking a hot bath

Answer: 2, 3, 5.

36. Cerebral symptoms characteristic of ischemic stroke:

1. headache

2. hemiparesis

3. nausea

4. transient visual impairment

5. rapid development of coma

6. meningeal symptoms

Answer: 1, 3.

37. Changes in the cerebrospinal fluid characteristic of ischemic stroke:

1. lymphocytic pleocytosis

2. the number of lymphocytes - 1-5 in 1 µl

3. opalescence

4. the amount of protein - 0.2-0.4 g / l

5. the amount of protein - 0.9-1.2 g / l

Answer: 2, 4.

38. The most informative diagnostic methods of examination in ischemic stroke:

1. electroencephalography

2. angiography of cerebral vessels

3. lumbar puncture

4. computed tomography

5. ventriculography

6. pneumoencephalography

Answer: 2, 3, 4.

39. Drugs of choice for relief of cerebral edema in ischemic stroke:

1. steroid hormones

2. glycerin

3. furosemide

Answer: 1, 2, 3.

40. Antibiotics for ischemic stroke are prescribed for:

1. treatment of the underlying disease

2. prevention of pneumonia

3. Pressure ulcer prevention

4. prevention of uroinfection

Answer: 2, 4.

41. To improve the rheological properties of blood in ischemic stroke, it is advisable to use:

1. rheopolyglucin

2. aminophylline

3. trental

4. aspirin

5. fibrinogen

6. vicasola

Answer: 1, 2, 3, 4.

42. Tactics of managing patients with hemorrhagic stroke in the acute period:

1. elevated head position

2. lowered head position

3. airway management

4. fight against cerebral edema

5. fight against pulmonary edema

6. prevention of pneumonia

7. normalization of blood pressure

8. prescribing drugs that reduce blood clotting

Answer: 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7.

43. Drugs indicated for the treatment of patients with hemorrhagic stroke:

1. dibazol, clonidine

2. antibiotics

3. analgin

4. heparin

5. ascorbic acid

Answer: 1, 2, 3, 5.

44. Tactics of managing patients with hemorrhagic stroke in the recovery period:

1. extension of bed rest after 2 weeks

2. extension of bed rest after 4-8 weeks

3. prescribing nootropic drugs

4. prescribing anticoagulants

5. massage of paralyzed limbs

Answer: 2, 3, 5, 6.

45. For the treatment of ischemic non-thrombotic stroke, it is most advisable to use:

1. direct acting anticoagulants

2. antiplatelet agents

3. indirect anticoagulants

4. drugs that improve brain metabolism

Answer: 2, 4

ADDITION:

46. Ischemic strokes are classified into:

1. thrombotic

2. ________________

3._________________

Answer: non-thrombotic, embolic.

47. The diagnosis of transient ischemic attack is made if all focal symptoms regress within ______________.

Answer: 24 hours.

48. The diagnosis of transient ischemic attack is made if

within 24 hours all _______________ symptoms regress. Answer: focal.

49. In the clinic of ischemic stroke, ________________ symptoms prevail over ________________ symptoms.

Answer: focal over cerebral.

50. Acute disorders of cerebral circulation are classified:

1. __________ ____________ ____________ .

2. small stroke

3. lacunar stroke

4. ___________ ____________ .

5. ___________ ____________ Answer: transient ischemic attack

ischemic stroke

hemorrhagic stroke

51. The medial and upper outer surface of the frontal and parietal lobes, the anterior part of the corpus callosum are supplied with blood by ___________ ___________ artery.

Answer: anterior cerebral.

52. The convexital surface of the frontal, parietal and temporal lobes, the internal capsule, subcortical nodes are supplied with blood by ___________ ____________ artery.

Answer: middle cerebral.

53. The occipital lobes, the basal surface of the temporal lobes are supplied with blood by the ______________ _____________ artery.

Answer: posterior cerebral.

54. Cerebral complaints, emotional lability, decreased memory and attention, sleep disorders, focal neurological microsymptomatics characterize the clinic of ______________ _____________ ___ stages.

Answer: dyscirculatory encephalopathy stage 1.

55. Cerebral complaints, reduced criticism of one's condition, dementia, the presence of pyramidal, pseudobulbar, akinetic-rigid syndromes, an increase in clinical symptoms with age characterize the clinic of _____________ ____________ ____ stages.

Answer: dyscirculatory encephalopathy stage 3

ESTABLISH COMPLIANCE;

56. Vascular pool: Symptoms of damage:

1. internal carotid artery A. central hemiparesis with a predominance in the arm

2. middle cerebral artery B. opto-pyramidal syndrome

3. anterior cerebral artery B. central hemiparesis with a predominance in the leg

Answer: 1-B 2-A 3-C

57. Vascular pool: Symptoms of damage:

1. middle cerebral artery A. central tetraparesis, 2-sided pore-

cranial nerve

2. posterior cerebral artery B. homonymous hemianopsia

3. basilar artery B. central hemiparesis, hemihypesthesia

Answer: 1- C 2- B 3- A

58. Vascular pool: Symptoms of damage:

1. left middle cerebral artery A. right-sided hemianopsia

2. left posterior cerebral artery B. motor aphasia

3. left cerebellar artery B. left-sided hemiataxia

Answer: 1-B 2-A 3-C

59. Vascular pool: Symptoms of damage:

1. right cerebellar artery A. spastic hypertension of the left limbs

2. right middle cerebral artery B. hypotension of the right limbs

3. right internal carotid artery C. transient blindness of the right eye Answer: 1-B 2-A 3-C

60. Vascular pool: Symptoms of damage:

1. vertebral artery A. mental disorders

2. middle cerebral artery B. alternating syndrome

3. anterior cerebral artery B. syndrome of damage to the internal capsule

Answer: 1-B 2-C 3-A

61. Disease: Symptoms:

1. subarachnoid hemorrhage A. gradual onset

2. ischemic thrombotic stroke B. sudden onset

B. meningeal symptoms

G. hemiparesis

D. hemianesthesia

E. increased body temperature

G. bloody or xanthochromic liquor

H. hypodense zone at CT Answer: 1- B, C, F, G. 2- A, D, E, Z.

62. Stages of discirculatory encephalopathy: Symptoms:

1. first A. emotional lability

2. third B. dementia

B. sleep disturbance

D. akinetic-rigid syndrome

D. pseudobulbar syndrome

E. anisoreflexia

G. symptoms of oral automatism

Z. reduction of criticism Answer: 1- A, C, F, F, Z. 2- B, C, D, E, F, F, Z.

63. Disease: Symptoms:

1. ischemic stroke A. hypertension syndrome

2. brain tumor B. acute onset

C. hyperdense zone on CT

D. hypodense zone on CT

D. increase in the amount of protein in the cerebrospinal fluid

Answer: 1- B, D. 2- A, C, D.

64. Disease: Symptoms:

1. parenchymal-subarachnoid A. headache

hemorrhage B. vomiting

2. subarachnoid hemorrhage B. hemiplegia

D. meningeal symptoms

D. aphasia

E. hemianopia Answer: 1- A, B, C, D, D, E. 2- A, B, D.

65. Disease: Symptoms:

1. hemorrhagic stroke A. gradual onset

2. Ischemic thrombotic stroke B. Flickering symptoms

B. acute onset

D. meningeal symptoms

D. hemiplegia

E. bloody liquor Answer: 1- C, D, D, E. 2- A, B, D.

66. Pathophysiological stages of ischemic stroke:

thrombus formation

Stenosis of the lumen of the vessel

Slowing blood flow

Hypoxic tissue ischemia

Answer: 3, 1, 2, 4, 5.

67. Sequence of origin of the arteries of the carotid basin:

internal carotid

Middle cerebral

General carotid

Orbital

Anterior medulla Answer: 2, 4, 1, 3, 5.

68. Anatomical sequence of arteries forming the circle of Willis:

Basilar

Back connecting

Vertebral

Middle cerebral

Front connecting

posterior medulla

Anterior medulla Answer: 2, 4, 1, 5, 7, 3, 6.

69. Frequency of occurrence of variants of the course of ischemic stroke / from the most frequent /:

With a gradual increase in symptoms over several hours

Apoplektiform development of symptoms

Pseudotumorous development of symptoms Answer: 1, 2, 3.

70. Frequency of etiological factors in the development of hemorrhagic stroke /from the most frequent/:

Arterial hypertension

vascular atherosclerosis

vessel aneurysm

Diapedesis in somatic pathology Answer: 1, 3, 2, 4.

TOPIC 2. CRANIO-BRAIN INJURY.

CHOOSE ALL CORRECT ANSWERS.

71. Symptoms of concussion are:

1. prolonged disorder of consciousness /more than 30 minutes/

2. headache

3. nausea, vomiting

4. meningeal symptoms

Answer: 2.3.

72. Brain contusion is characterized by symptoms:

1. short-term disorder of consciousness /3-5 minutes/

2. focal symptoms of brain damage

3. meningeal symptoms

4. skull fractures on craniograms Answer: 2,3,4.

73. For compression of the brain by traumatic intracranial hematoma

typical symptoms:

1. disorder of consciousness

2. the presence of a "light gap"

3. displacement of M-ECHO during ECHO-EG

4. bradycardia Answer: 1,2,3,4.

74. Infectious complications of open traumatic brain injury:

1. meningitis

2. brain abscess

3. osteomyelitis

4. carotid-cavernous fistula Answer: 1,2,3.

75. Fracture of the base of the skull in the region of the anterior cranial fossa is characterized by

symptoms:

1. Nazirite

2. "late" glasses

3. psychomotor agitation

4. damage to the facial nerve according to the peripheral type

Answer: 1,2,3.

ESTABLISH COMPLIANCE;

76. Disease: Symptoms:

1. concussion A. meningeal

2. brain contusion B. focal neurological symptoms

B. disorder of consciousness

D. skull fractures Answer: 1 - C. 2 - A, B, C, D.

77. Complications of acute TBI: Symptoms:

1. meningitis A. meningeal

2. carotid-cavernous fistula B. pulsating noise in the head

B. exophthalmos

D. neutrophilic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 1 - A, D 2 - B, C.

78. Disease: Symptoms:

1. brain contusion A. disorder of consciousness

2. brain compression B. focal neurological symptoms

B. the presence of a "light" gap

G. anisocoria Answer: 1 - A, B 2 - A, B, C, D.

79. Fracture of the base of the skull: Symptoms:

1. anterior cranial fossa A. nazarea

2. middle cranial fossa B. otorrhea

B. "late" glasses

D. damage to the facial nerve Answer: 1 - A, B. 2 - B, D.

80. Consequences of TBI: Symptoms:

1. hydrocephalus A. frequent headaches

2. convulsive syndrome B. convulsive seizures

B. decreased vision

G. vomiting Answer: 1 - A, B, D. 2 - A, B.

ADDITION:

81. The time from the moment of receiving a TBI to the onset of symptoms of cerebral compression is called ____________ ____________.

Answer: light gap

82. TBI, in which the dura mater is mechanically damaged is called _____________.

Answer: penetrating.

83. TBI, in which damage to the skin and bone coincide in projection is called ______________.

Answer: open

84. A complication of TBI, in which neutrophilic pleocytosis appears in the cerebrospinal fluid, is called ______________.

Answer: meningitis

85. A complication of TBI, in which there is a pulsating exophthalmos and noise in the head is called ___________ - ____________ _____________.

Answer: carotid-cavernous fistula

INSTALL SEQUENCE:

86. Examinations of a patient with a diagnosis of cerebral compression:

Angiography

Neurological examination

ECHO-EG Answer: 3,4,1,2.

87. Examination of a patient with a diagnosis of carotid-cavernous anastomosis:

Angiography

Neurological examination

Head auscultation

Examination by an ophthalmologist Answer: 3,4,5,2,1.

88. Craniogram scores:

The presence of radiological signs of cracks

X-ray labeling

Evaluation of correct head position

Craniographic signs of intracranial hypertension Answer: 2,3,4,1.

89. Formulations of neurosurgical diagnosis in acute TBI:

brain damage

Bone damage

Type of injury / open or closed /

Presence of complications Answer: 3,2,1,4.

90. Development of pathophysiological mechanisms of severe brain injury:

cerebral edema

metabolic acidosis

Appearance of necrosis

hypoxia

Increased intracranial pressure

Dislocation of the brain Answer: 2,5,1,4,3,6.

TOPIC 3. BRAIN TUMORS.

CHOOSE ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:

91. Symptoms characteristic of tumors of the frontal lobe:

1. hemiparesis

2. motor aphasia

3. Jacksonian motor seizures

4. sensitivity disorders Answer: 1,2,3.

92. Symptoms characteristic of tumors of the temporal lobe:

1. auditory, olfactory hallucinations

2. motor aphasia

3. homonymous hemianopsia /or quadrant/.

4. sensory aphasia Answer: 1,3,4.

93. Symptoms characteristic of pituitary adenoma:

1. acromegaly

2. bitemporal hemianopia

3. hemiparesis

4. hearing impairment Answer: 1.2.

94. Symptoms characteristic of tumors of the cerebellum:

1. muscle hypotension in the limbs on the side of the lesion

2. horizontal nystagmus

3. impaired sense of smell

4. congestive optic discs Answer: 1,2,4.

95. Symptoms characteristic of neurinoma of the 8th pair:

1. noise in the ear

2. hearing loss

3. hemiparesis

4. hemihypesthesia Answer: 1.2.

SET MATCH:

96. Tumor localization: Tumor type:

1. supratentorial A. pituitary adenoma

2. subtentorial B. neurinoma 8 pairs

B. astrocytoma of the cerebellum

G. craniopharyngioma Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - B, C.

97. Tumor localization: Histological structure:

1. intracerebral A. glioblastoma

2. extracerebral B. astrocytoma

B. meningioma

D. ependymoma Answer: 1 - A, B, D. 2 - B.

98. Tumor localization: Histological structure:

1. extraventricular A. ependymoma

2. intraventricular B. meningioma

B. pituitary adenoma

G. neurinoma Answer: 1 - B, C, D. 2 - A.

99. Syndromes: Clinical manifestations:

1. chiasmal A. bitemporal hemianopsia

2. dislocation B. bradycardia

B. primary atrophy of the optic nerves

D. respiratory disorders Answer: 1 - A, B. 2 - B, G.

100. Type of syndrome: Clinical manifestations:

1. cerebral hypertensive A. paroxysmal nocturnal headaches

syndrome B. congestive optic discs

2. focal symptoms B. disorder of consciousness

G. acromegaly Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2- G.

ADDITION:

101. A syndrome in which atrophy of the optic disc in one eye is combined with a congestive disc in the other occurs with a tumor of the _____________ surface of the ______________ lobe.

Answer: the basal surface of the frontal lobe.

102. A change in the fundus that occurs after congestive discs and leads to blindness is called ____________ ______________ disc.

Answer: secondary atrophy.

103. Impairment of consciousness, the appearance of vital bulbar disorders in a patient with hypertension syndrome indicates the occurrence of _____________ syndrome. Answer: dislocation.

104. The syndrome that occurs when the cerebrospinal fluid is occluded by a tumor is called _______________.

Answer: hypertension.

105. For urgent treatment of hypertensive-dislocation syndrome, _______________ ____________ /minor neurosurgical intervention/ is used.

Answer: ventricular drainage.

INSTALL SEQUENCE:

106. Examination of a patient with a diagnosis of subtentorial tumor:

Angiography

Neurological examination Answer: 3,2,1.

107. Medical measures for hypertension syndrome:

Intravenous dehydration therapy

Bed rest

Monitor pulse, blood pressure, respiration

Neurosurgical examination of the patient

CSF shunting operations

Answer: 3,1,2,4,5.

108. Occurrence of symptoms in supratentorial tumors:

Cerebral symptoms

Focal symptoms

Secondary atrophy of the optic nerves Answer: 2,1,3.

109. Occurrence of symptoms in tumors of the cerebellar-pontine angle /neurinrma 8 pairs/.

Paresis of mimic muscles

Hearing loss

Noise in the ear

Disturbance of sensitivity on the face and the development of converging strabismus

The appearance of cerebellar symptoms Answer: 3,2,1,4,5.

110. Therapeutic measures in a patient with a malignant brain tumor:

Partial removal of the tumor

Elimination of intracranial hypertension

Chemotherapy and Radiation Therapy

Histological examination of the tumor Answer: 2,1,4,3.

TOPIC 4. TUMORS OF THE SPINAL CORD.

CHOOSE ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:

111. Symptoms characteristic of extramedullary tumors:

1. violation of pain sensitivity

2. radicular pain

3. the presence of a block of the subarachnoid space

4. hearing loss

Answer: 1,2,3.

112. Symptoms characteristic of extramedullary tumor:

1. Brown-Séquard syndrome

2. complete transverse lesion of the spinal cord

3. radicular pain

4. protein-cell dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 1,2,3,4.

113. Intramedullary tumors include:

1. meningioma

2. neuroma

3. ependymoma

Answer: 3.4.

114. Symptoms characteristic of the initial stage of intramedullary tumor at the level of C5-C8:

1. violation of surface sensitivity at first in the proximal sections

2. flaccid paresis, paralysis

3. spastic paresis, paralysis

4. trophic disorders

5. pelvic disorders Answer: 1,2,4.

115. Symptoms characteristic of a tumor of the upper thoracic spinal cord: / extramedullary /:

1. pain when tapping over the spinous processes of the vertebrae

2. tetraparesis

3. lower paraparesis

4. dysfunction of the pelvic organs Answer: 1,3,4.

SET MATCH:

116. Disease: Symptoms:

1. tumor of the upper cervical region A. pain when moving the head

spinal cord B. pain radiating to the upper limbs

2. tumor of the lower cervical region B. flaccid paresis of the upper extremities and central

spinal cord lower

G. spastic tetraparesis Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - B, C.

117. Disease: Symptoms:

thoracic B. violation of pelvic functions

2. tumor of the cauda equina B. lower spastic paraparesis

G. hypesthesia in the perineum and lower extremities

D. lower flaccid paraparesis

/often asymmetrical/

Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2 - A, B, D, D.

118. Disease: Symptoms:

1. extramedullary tumor A. radicular pain

B. progressive course

2. Vertebrogen radiculopathy - V. reversibility of symptoms with conservative

nogogenesis treatment

D. protein-cell dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid

D. spread of sensory disorders from the bottom up

Answer: 1 - A, B, D, D. 2 - A, B.

119. Disease: Symptoms:

1. intramedullary tumor A. signs of dysmorphogenesis

B.d disease duration 5-10 years

2. syringomyelia B. rapid increase in symptoms of the lesion

spinal cord diameter

D. vegetative-trophic disorders

D. flaccid paresis of the limbs Answer: 1 - C, D, D. 2 - A, B, D, D.

120. Disease: Histological structure:

1. primary tumor of spinal A. neurinoma

brain B. glioblastoma

2. secondary tumor of spinal B. lipoma

brain G. cancer metastases

Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2 - G.

ADDITION:

121. A change in the cerebrospinal fluid in a tumor of the spinal cord is called _________- _________ _____________. Answer: protein-cell dissociation.

122. X-ray symptom of atrophy of the roots of the arches and an increase in the distance between them as a result of tumor pressure is called a symptom of _________ - _________ / last name / Answer: Elsberg - Dike.

123. A progressive disease of the spinal cord, characterized by the growth of glia and the formation of cavities in the gray matter is called _________________.

Answer: syringomyelia.

124. X-ray examination of the patency of the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord is called ____________ ______________.

Answer: contrast myelography.

125. Tumors of the spinal cord are classified by location into extramedullary and _____________.

Answer: intramedullary

INSTALL SEQUENCE:

126. Examinations of a patient with spinal cord tumor:

X-ray of the spine

Neurological examination

Lumbar puncture with liquorodynamic tests Answer: 2,4,1,3.

127. Development of symptoms in extramedullary tumor:

Brown-Sequard Syndrome

radicular stage

Stage of complete transverse spinal cord injury Answer: 2,1,3.

128. Development of symptoms in intramedullary tumor:

The appearance of conduction disorders of sensitivity

Syndrome of complete transverse spinal cord injury

Segmental sensitivity disorders of the dissociated type Answer: 2,3,1.

129. Diagnosis formulations for spinal cord tumor:

primary or secondary

Level of spinal cord injury

Extra- or intramedullary Answer: 1,3,2.

130. Carrying out the Quekenstedt test:

CSF analysis

Lumbar puncture

Compression of the jugular veins

Measurement of the initial level of CSF pressure

2nd pressure measurement

3rd pressure measurement

Cessation of pressure on the jugular veins Answer: 7,1,3,2,4,6,5.

TOPIC 5. INFECTIOUS DISEASES OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM.

ENCEPHALITIS, MENINGITIS.

CHOOSE ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:

131. Symptoms characteristic of tick-borne encephalitis:

1. central hemiparesis

2. flaccid paresis of the upper limbs

3. conductive disturbances of sensitivity

4. "hanging head"

5. bulbar disorders

6. convergent strabismus

7. sleep disorder

8. lymphocytic pleocytosis in CSF

9. Kozhevnikovskaya epilepsy Answer: 2,4,5,8,9.

132. Symptoms characteristic of the acute stage of epidemic encephalitis:

1. bulbar syndrome

2. paresis of accommodation, diplopia

3. pathological sleepiness

4. vegetative disorders /hypersalivation, hyperhidrosis, hiccups/

5. intermittent urinary incontinence

6. Reverse Argyle-Robertson Syndrome Answer: 2,3,4,6.

133. Symptoms characteristic of the chronic stage of epidemic encephalitis:

1. paralysis of the limbs

2. hypokinesia

3. headache

4. muscle rigidity

5. static tremor

6. bilateral ptosis

7. epileptic seizures

8. violation of consciousness Answer: 2,4,5.

134. Symptoms characteristic of mosquito encephalitis:

1. seasonality

2. peripheral paralysis of the upper limbs

3. epileptic seizures

4. disturbance of consciousness

5. sharp headache, vomiting

6. increase in body temperature up to 40 degrees

7. meningeal symptoms

8. paralysis of accommodation Answer: 1,3,4,5,6,7.

135. Symptoms characteristic of acute myelitis:

1. general infectious syndrome

2. disorder of consciousness

3. radicular pain

4. psychomotor agitation, delirium

5. paresis of the lower extremities

6. conductive disturbances of sensitivity

7. CSF pleocytosis Answer: 1,3,5,6,7.

136. Symptoms characteristic of tuberculous meningitis:

1. the presence of a primary focus in the lungs

2. acute onset

3. symptoms of intoxication

4. prodromal period 2-3 weeks

5. neutrophilic pleocytosis in CSF

6. lymphocytic pleocytosis in high-protein CSF

7. high sugar content in liquor Answer: 1,3,4,6.

137. The main treatment regimen for tuberculous meningitis includes:

1. isoniazid 15 mg/kg body weight per day

2. rifampicin 600 mg daily

3. penicillin 12 million units per day

4. streptomycin 1g per day

5. seduxen up to 3 tab. per day Answer: 1,2,4.

138. Causative agents of primary serous meningitis include:

1. Coxsackie enterovirus

2. polio virus

3. mumps virus

4. enterovirus ECHO

5. Streptococcus Answer: 1.4.

139. Secondary purulent meningitis may develop due to:

1. penetrating wound of the skull

2. purulent otitis media

3. purulent sinusitis

4. meningococcemia

5. bronchiectasis Answer: 1,2,3,5.

140. Symptoms characteristic of meningitis:

1.general hyperesthesia

2. headache

4. normal composition of cerebrospinal fluid

5. neck stiffness

6. spread of the infectious process to the substance of the brain Answer: 1,2,3,5.

SET MATCH:

141. Disease: Symptoms:

1. tick-borne encephalitis A. incubation period 10-14 days

2. epidemic encephalitis B. seasonality of the disease

B. pathological drowsiness

G. oculomotor disorders

D. bulbar syndrome

E. peripheral paresis of the upper limbs Answer: 1 - A, B, D, E. 2 - V, D.

142. Chronic form of encephalitis: Symptoms:

1. tick-borne A. Kozhevnikovskaya epilepsy

2. epidemic B. flaccid hand paresis

B. akinetic-rigid syndrome

D. chore-athetosis, eye spasm Answer: 1 - A, B. 2- C, D.

143. Disease: Symptoms:

1. tick-borne encephalitis A. pathogen - filterable neurotropic

2. mosquito encephalitis virus

B. acute onset, high fever

B. decreased muscle tone, muscle atrophy

G. violation of speech, phonation, swallowing

E. hemorrhagic rash Answer: 1- A, B, C, D. 2- A, B, D.

144. Disease: Symptoms:

1. tick-borne encephalitis A. pathogen-filterable neurotropic

2. epidemic encephalitis virus

B. pathogen unknown

In the transmission path transmissive, alimentary

G. bulbar syndrome

D. oculo-lethargic syndrome

E. diagnostics using RSK, RN, RTGA

Answer: 1- A, C, D, E. 2- B, D.

145. Disease: Symptoms:

1. tick-borne encephalitis A. tetraparesis or lower paraparesis

2. acute myelitis B. flaccid paresis of the upper limbs

B. conductive hypoesthesia

D. dysfunction of the pelvic organs

D. trophic disorders

E. "hanging head" Answer: 1- B, E. 2- A, C, D, D.

146. Disease: Symptoms:

1. tuberculous meningitis A. acute onset

2. meningococcal meningitis B. subacute onset

B. meningeal symptoms

G. cranial nerve damage

D. neutrophilic pleocytosis in CSF

E. lymphocytic pleocytosis in the cerebrospinal fluid Answer: 1 - B, C, D, E. 2 - A, C, D, D.

ADDITION:

151. The syndrome, which is expressed in the absence of pupillary reaction to accommodation with convergence with intact pupillary reaction to light, is characteristic of: _________________ encephalitis.

Answer: epidemic.

152. Ways of infection penetration into the human body in case of tick-borne encephalitis:

AND _____________ .

Answer: transmissive and alimentary.

153. Pathomorphological changes in tick-borne encephalitis mainly develop in ____________; ___________ brain, _____________ ____________

spinal cord.

Answer: shells; brainstem, cervical thickening of the spinal cord.

154. In Russia, mosquito encephalitis is common in __________ __________ and in _____________ region.

Answer: Far East and Primorsky Krai.

155. A typical clinical picture of the chronic stage of epidemic encephalitis is called the syndrome ______________ /surname/.

Answer: Parkinson's syndrome.

156 A symptom in which the doctor cannot bend the patient's head forward is called __________ ___________ ___________

Answer: neck stiffness

157. A symptom in which the doctor cannot straighten the patient's leg at the knee joint, previously bent at the hip and knee, is called __________ / surname /

Answer: Kernig

158. A symptom in which the patient's legs bend in the knee and hip joints when the head is bent forward is called ______________ ____________ /surname/. Answer: Brudzinsky upper.

159. Neutrophilic pleocytosis in CSF is a sign of ___________ meningitis.

Answer: purulent

160. An increase in the number of cells in the cerebrospinal fluid is called ______________.

Answer: pleocytosis

INSTALL SEQUENCE:

161. Development of clinical symptoms in tick-borne encephalitis:

- "hanging head"

Headache, vomiting

Flaccid plegia of the upper limbs

Increase in body temperature / 38-39 degrees /

Meningeal symptoms Answer: 5,2,4,1,3.

162. Medical measures for viral encephalitis:

exercise therapy, massage

Detoxification and dehydration therapy

Etiological therapy /acyclovir, Y-globulin/

Metabolic drugs, vitamins, HBO

Bed rest Answer: 5,3,2,4,1.

163. Medical measures in the treatment of the chronic stage of epidemic encephalitis:

Preparations based on L-DOPA

Stereotactic surgery

Central anticholinergics / cyclodol, norakin / Answer: 3, 2, 4, 1.

164. The frequency of occurrence of clinical forms of tick-borne encephalitis at present

/from the most frequent/:

Poliomyelitis

Meningeal

Polyradiculoneuritis Answer: 2,1,3.

165. The frequency of occurrence of viral encephalitis in the Western European region of Russia / from the most frequent /:

pincer

mosquito

Epidemic Economo

Answer: 1,3,2.

TOPIC 6. INJURY OF THE SPINE AND SPINAL CORD.

CHOOSE ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:

166. Symptoms characteristic of spinal cord contusion:

1. reversibility of neurological symptoms within a few hours

2. persistent motor and sensory impairments

3. dysfunction of the pelvic organs

4. impaired patency of the subarachnoid space

Answer: 2.3.

167. Symptoms characteristic of compression of the spinal cord:

1. increasing motor and sensory disorders

2. impaired patency of the subarachnoid space

3. fractures of the vertebral bodies and arches

4. absence of focal neurological symptoms Answer: 1,2,3.

168. Symptoms characteristic of a half lesion of the diameter of the spinal cord:

1. peripheral paraparesis

2. rapidly developing trophic disorders

3. central paresis on the side of the lesion

4. violations of pain and temperature sensitivity on the opposite side

5. dysfunction of the pelvic organs

6. violation of deep sensitivity on the side of the lesion Answer: 3,4,6.

169. Symptoms of damage to the spinal cord at the level of the thoracic segments:

1. central lower paraparesis

2. flaccid lower paraplegia

4. paralysis of the diaphragm Answer: 1.3.

170. Symptoms of damage to the spinal cord at the level of the lumbar enlargement /L1-S2/:

1. peripheral lower paraparesis

2. central lower paraparesis

3. loss of sensation from the pupart ligament

4. disappearance of knee and Achilles reflexes Answer: 1,3,4.

SET MATCH:

171. Disease: Symptoms:

1. concussion of the spinal cord A. transient sensory disturbances

2. spinal cord injury B. paresthesia

B. persistent paralysis of the limbs

D. violation of the function of the pelvic organs Answer: 1 - A, B. 2 - C, D.

172. Level of spinal cord injury Symptoms:

1. upper cervical region /C1-C4/ A. spastic tetraplegia

2. lumbar thickening /L1-S2/ B. dysfunction of the pelvic organs

B. respiratory failure

D. flaccid lower paraparesis Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2 - B, D.

173. Level of spinal cord injury: Symptoms:

1. lower cervical region /C5-C8/ A. flaccid paralysis of the arms

2. thoracic / T3-T12 / B. spastic paralysis of the legs

B. Claude-Bernard-Horner syndrome

D. violation of the functions of the pelvic organs Answer: 1 - A, B, C, D. 2 - B, D.

174. Disease: Symptoms:

1. spinal cord compression A. obstruction

subarachnoid space

2. concussion of the spinal cord B. protein-cell dissociation

in liquor

B. fractures of the vertebral bodies with displacement

D. reversibility of neurological symptoms within hours

Answer: 1 - A, B, C. 2 - G.

175. X-ray signs Injury of the spine:

spinal canal deformities:

1. there is a deformation A. damage to the ligamentous apparatus

2. no deformation B. dislocation, subluxation of the vertebrae

B. compression, comminuted fractures of the vertebral bodies

D. combined fractures of the bodies and arches Answer: 1 - B, C, D. 2 - A.

ADDITION:

176. Hemorrhage into the gray matter of the spinal cord is called _________________.

Answer: hematomyelia.

177. Damage to the spine and spinal cord with a violation of the integrity of the wall of the spinal canal is called __________________. Answer: penetrating.

178. Inhibition of reflex functions in response to spinal cord injury is called

_______________ _________ .

Answer: spinal shock.

179. A study in which the patency of the subarachnoid space of the spinal cord is assessed by changing the pressure of the cerebrospinal fluid is called _________________ ___________.

Answer: liquorodynamic test

180. The defeat of half the diameter of the spinal cord is called the syndrome ________ - ________ /surname/

Answer: Brown-Sekara.

TOPIC 7. EPILEPSY. MYASTENIA.

CHOOSE ONE CORRECT ANSWER:

181. Absence differs from petit mal:

1. the nature of the seizure

2. occurrence at certain hours

3. EEG - characteristic Answer: 3

182. For relief of status epilepticus, the following are used:

1. seduxen

2. respiratory analeptics

3. ganglion blockers Answer: 1

183. Type of inheritance in epilepsy:

1. autosomal dominant

2. autosomal recessive

3. polygenic Answer: 3

184. In case of myasthenic crisis it is necessary to:

1. introduce respiratory analeptics

2. introduce prozerin in/in

3. enter oksazil per os Answer: 2

185. The most informative study to detect thymoma in myasthenia gravis:

1. pneumomediastinography

2. phlebography

3. MRI - tomography Answer: 3

CHOOSE ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:

186. The main inhibitory neurotransmitters in epilepsy:

2. serotonin

3. glutamate

4. norepinephrine

5. histamine Answer: 1,2,4.

187. In epilepsy, the following are genetically predetermined:

1. convulsive readiness of the brain

2. state of cell membranes

3. epileptization of neurons

4. cell energy balance Answer: 1.3.

188. Diagnostic tests for myasthenia gravis:

2. proserine test

3. motor load test

4. atropine test

5. electromyography

Answer: 2,3,5.

189. Clinical signs of myasthenia:

1. general malaise

2. muscle weakness

3.Change in heart rate

4. diplopia

5. worsening of symptoms during the day

6. onset of symptoms in the early morning hours Answer: 2,4,5.

190. Symptoms characteristic of the ophthalmic form of myasthenia gravis:

1. lagophthalmos

2. violation of chewing

4. diplopia

5. dysphagia

6. strabismus Answer: 3,4,6.

SET MATCH:

191. Type of epileptic seizure: Clinical manifestations:

1. partial A. complex

2. generalized B. petit mal

G. simple Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - B, C.

192. Type of epileptic seizure: Clinical manifestations:

1. simple A. motor

2. complex B. epileptic automatisms

B. with impaired consciousness

G. sensory Answer: 1 - A, G. 2 - B, C.

193. Type of epileptic seizure: Clinical manifestations:

1. Jacksonian epilepsy A. focal seizures

2. temporal lobe epilepsy B. vegetative-visceral crises

B. psycho-emotional disorders

D. paresthesia attacks Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - B, C.

194. Course of convulsive syndrome: Medical tactics:

1. epileptic seizure A. observation by a neurologist in

polyclinic

2. single febrile convulsions

in a 1-year-old child B. hospitalization

3. recurrent epileptic seizures B. observation in IPA

4-5 times a year

Answer: 1 - B. 2 - A. 3 - C.

195. Disease: Best practices

research:

1. Genuine epilepsy A. EEG

2. epileptic seizures in tumor B. CT

brain V. clinical and genealogical

3. epileptic seizures in arteriovenous G. ECHO-EG

malformations D. angiography

E. NMR tomography Answer: 1 - A, C. 2 - B, D, E. 3 - D, E.

INSTALL SEQUENCE:

196. Phases of grand mal epileptic seizure:

Clonic

Initial

tonic

Postictal Answer: 3,1,2,4.

197. Development of clinical symptoms during an epileptic seizure:

Tongue bite

midriaz

Involuntary urination Answer: 3,1,2,4.

198. Medical measures during an epileptic seizure:

Administration of anticonvulsants

Language fixation

Prevention of traumatization of the patient Answer: 3,2,1.

199. Medical measures for epistatus:

Lumbar puncture

Regulation of external respiration

The introduction of anticonvulsants Answer: 3,1,2.

200. Medical measures for myasthenic crisis:

Oksazil orally 0.01 until muscle weakness regresses

Respiratory capacity assessment

Prozerin 1 ml 0.5% IV Answer: 3,2,1.

ADDITION:

201. In epilepsy, personality changes in the form of euphoria, exaltation are characteristic of the localization of the pathological process in the ____________ hemisphere. Answer: right

202. The main inhibitory mediator in epilepsy: _____________ / abbreviation /

Answer: GABA

203. The main excitatory mediator in epilepsy: _______________.

Answer: glutamate

204. In epilepsy, personality changes in the form of rigidity of mental processes, viscosity, hypochondria are characteristic of the localization of the pathological process in

hemispheres.

Answer: left

205. In the implementation of hereditary predisposition in epilepsy, ___________ factors play an important role. Answer: exogenous

206. In myasthenia, the pathological process develops in the area of _________ - ______ synapse.

Answer: neuromuscular

207. In myasthenia, there is a process of autoaggression against ___________ receptors.

Answer: acetylcholine

208. When conducting a diagnostic test to detect myasthenia gravis, a patient is given ____________.

Answer: prozerin

209. To stop a myasthenic crisis, a patient is given _____________. Answer: prozerin

210. To stop a cholinergic crisis, a patient is given ______________. Answer: atropine

TOPIC 8. MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS. LATERAL AMYOTROPHIC SCLEROSIS.

CHOOSE ONE CORRECT ANSWER.

211. Multiple sclerosis is a disease of the central nervous system:

1. vascular

2. hereditary

3. demyelinating Answer: 3.

212. Multiple sclerosis is more common at the age of:

1. 10 -14 years old

2. 18 - 30 years old

3. 40 - 55 years Answer: 2.

213. Syndrome characteristic of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis:

1. epileptic seizures

2. dysfunction of the pelvic organs

3. amyotrophy with fibrillations and hyperreflexia

4. central monoparesis

5. trophic ulcers Answer: 3.

214. Multiple sclerosis must be differentiated from:

1. meningitis

2. disseminated encephalomyelitis

3. subarachnoid hemorrhage Answer: 2.

215. Symptom characteristic of the bulbar form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

1. sensory disturbances

2. amblyopia

3. dysarthria and dysphagia

4. atrophy of the lower extremities Answer: 3.

216. In multiple sclerosis, the following system is most often affected:

1. sensitive

2. pyramidal and cerebellar

3. strio-nigral Answer: 2.

217. In amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, the following system is affected:

1. vegetative

2. motor

3. sensitive Answer: 2.

218. In amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, a combined lesion develops:

1. anterior and posterior horns of the spinal cord

2. anterior horns and pyramidal tract

3. posterior horns and posterior columns of the spinal cord

4. pyramidal tract and cerebellum Answer: 2.

219. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis often develops at the age of:

1. 20 - 30 years old

2. 15 - 20 years old

3. 50 - 70 years old

4. 30 - 40 years Answer: 3.

220. Syndrome characteristic of multiple sclerosis:

1. retrobulbar neuritis

2. sympathoadrenal crisis

3. Kozhevnikov epilepsy

4. Jackson epilepsy Answer: 1.

CHOOSE ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:

221. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by lesions:

1. sensitive spinal ganglia

2. cerebellum

3. olfactory tract

4. pyramidal pathway

5. optic nerve

6. anterior horns of the spinal cord Answer: 2, 4, 5.

222. In multiple sclerosis, damage to the visual analyzer manifests itself as:

1. angiopathy of the retina

2. retrobulbar neuritis

3. hemianopsia

4. congestive optic disc

5. blanching of the temporal halves of the optic disc

6. transient amaurosis

7. visual hallucinations Answer: 2, 5, 6.

223. Cervical-thoracic form of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis begins with:

1. weakness in the distal parts of the hands

2. epileptic seizures

3. dysfunction of the pelvic organs

4. atrophy of the muscles of the hands

5. fasciculations

6. visual impairment Answer: 1, 4, 5.

224. For the treatment of multiple sclerosis with the greatest effect, use:

1. antibiotics

2. corticosteroids

3. plasmapherresis

4. calcium channel blockers

5. iron preparations

6. b-ferron Answer: 2, 3, 6.

225. In multiple sclerosis, there are antigens of the histocompatibility complex /HLA-system/:

5. DR1 Answer: 3, 4.

SET MATCH:

226. Disease: Symptoms:

1. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis A. young age

2. multiple sclerosis B. progressive course

B. pelvic disorders are not typical

G. pelvic disorders are characteristic

D. advanced age

E. remitting course

G. muscle atrophy

Z. disappearance of abdominal reflexes

I. fasciculations

K. cerebellar disorders Answer: 1 - B, C, D, F, I. 2 - A, G, E, Z, K.

227. Multiple sclerosis form: Symptoms:

1. cerebral A. nystagmus

2. spinal B. mental disorders

B. lower spastic paraparesis

D. intentional trembling

D. pelvic disorders

E. visual impairment Answer: 1 - A, B, D, E. 2 - C, D.

228. Variant course of multiple sclerosis: Signs:

1. benign A. long remissions

2. malignant B. progressive course

B. frequent exacerbations

G. beginning at 35-40 years old

D. rapid development of hormonal dependence

E. bulbar symptoms Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - B, C, D, F

229. Therapy of multiple sclerosis: Medications:

1. pathogenetic A. dexazone

2. symptomatic B. ACTH

B. baclofen, mydocalm

G. cyclophosphamide

D. interferon

E. massage

G. psychotropic drugs

Z. prozerin Answer: 1 - A, B, D, D. 2 - C, E, F, Z.

230. Differential diagnosis of diseases: Symptoms:

1. multiple sclerosis A. strio-nigral syndromes

2. hepato-cerebral dystrophy B. partial atrophy of the optic discs

B. autosomal recessive type of transmission

D. violation of copper metabolism

D. liver pathology

E. pyramidal-cerebellar syndromes

J. Kaiser-Fleischer rings

Z. multifactorial disease Answer: 1 - B, F, Z. 2 - A, C, D, E, G.

ADDITION:

231. Multiple sclerosis is characterized by ________________ course of the disease.

Answer: remitting.

232. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is characterized by _______________ course of the disease.

Answer: progressive.

233. Atrophy of the temporal halves of the optic discs, a characteristic symptom of ______________ ___________ ./disease/.

Answer: multiple sclerosis.

234. Spondylogenic cervical myelopathy must be differentiated from ___________ ___________ __________ .

Answer: amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

235. Multiple sclerosis belongs to the group of ___________________ diseases. Answer: demyelinating.

TOPIC 9. Diseases of the peripheral nervous system.

CHOOSE ONE CORRECT ANSWER.

236. The cervical plexus consists of spinal roots:

5. C1-Th2 Answer: 3

237. Brachial plexus consists of spinal roots:

5. C5-C8 Answer: 2

238. Pain along the posterior-lateral surface of the thigh is characteristic of root damage:

4. S1 Answer: 4

239. Damage to the femoral nerve is characterized by:

1. leg flexion

2. leg extension

3. plantar extension of the foot

4. dorsiflexion of the foot

5. Achilles reflex Answer: 2

240. Damage to the sciatic nerve is characterized by:

1. Absence of the Achilles reflex

2. no knee jerk

3. hypoesthesia on the anterior surface of the thigh

4. positive symptom of Wasserman Answer: 1

CHOOSE ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:

241. Damage to the facial nerve is characterized by:

2. hypoesthesia of half of the face

3. paresis of the mimic muscles of half of the face

4. lacrimation

5. divergent strabismus

6. decreased brow reflex

7. Bell's sign

Answer: 3, 4, 6, 7.

242. Damage to the spinal ganglion is characterized by:

1. radicular pain

2. herpetic eruptions /herpes zoster/

3. peripheral segmental paresis

4. dissociated type of sensory disorder

5. disorder of all types of sensitivity in the corresponding segment

Answer: 1, 2, 5.

243. Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by:

1. attacks of acute pain in the face

2. peripheral paresis of the facial muscles

3. the presence of trigger zones on the face

4. decreased taste in the back third of the tongue

5. relief of pain by taking finlepsin Answer: 1, 3, 5.

244. Symptoms characteristic of polyneuropathy:

1. hemiparesis

2. conductive type of sensitivity disorder

3. pain along the nerves

4. peripheral paresis of the hands, feet

5. muscle hypertension

6. decreased sensitivity in the distal extremities

7. vegetative disorders in the distal limbs Answer: 3, 4, 6, 7.

245. Symptoms characteristic of diphtheria polyneuropathy:

1. central tetraparesis

2. bulbar paralysis

3. paralysis of accommodation

4. meningeal symptoms

5. pleocytosis in CSF

6. paresthesia in the limbs

7. heart rhythm disorders Answer: 2, 3, 6, 7.

SET MATCH:

251. Peripheral nerve: Symptom of defeat:

1. ischial A. Lassegue

2. femoral B. Wasserman

V. Matskevich-Strumpel

D. "landing" Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - B, C.

252. Indications for surgical treatment of vertebrogenic radiculopathy:

1. absolute A. block of subarachnoid space

2. relative B. pain syndrome for more than two months

C. violation of the functions of the pelvic organs Answer: 1 - A, C. 2 - B.

253. Disease: Symptoms:

1. acute polyradiculoneuropathy A. peripheral tetraparesis

Guillain-Barre B. paresis in the distal end-

2. alcoholic polyneuropathy

B. paresis of the facial muscles

G. pain in the limbs

E. protein-cell dissociation in the cerebrospinal fluid

E. paresis in the proximal limbs

Answer: 1 - A, C, D, D, E. 2 - A, B, D.

254. Disease: Therapy:

1. herpetic polyradiculo- A. vitamins of group B

neuropathy B. plasmapherresis

2. acute polyradiculoneuro-V. anticholinesterase drugs

Patia Guillain-Barre G. acyclovir, zoverax

Answer: 1 - A, D. 2 - A, B, C.

255. Disease: Symptoms:

1. trigeminal neuralgia A. "shooting" pains

2. neuropathy of the facial nerve B. Bell's sign

B. the presence of trigger zones

G. lagophthalmos

E. absence of the superciliary reflex Answer: 1 - A, C. 2 - B, D, D.

ADDITION:

256. "Claw-shaped" hand is characteristic of the defeat of the ____________ nerve.

Answer: elbow

257. "Dangling" hand is characteristic of the defeat of the ____________ nerve.

Answer: beam

258. "Monkey" hand is characteristic of the defeat of the _____________ nerve.

Answer: middle

259. The absence of the extensor-elbow reflex is characteristic of the defeat of the ____________ nerve.

Answer: beam

260. The absence of a knee jerk is characteristic of the defeat of the ____________ nerve.

Answer: femur.

TOPIC 10. Hereditary diseases of the nervous system.

CHOOSE ONE CORRECT ANSWER.

261. Type of inheritance of Wilson's disease:

1. autosomal dominant

2. autosomal recessive

4. dominantly linked to the X chromosome Answer: 2.

262. Type of inheritance of Huntington's chorea:

1. autosomal dominant

2. autosomal recessive

3. X-linked recessively

4. dominantly linked to the X chromosome Answer: 1.

263. Type of inheritance of Duchenne myopathy:

1. autosomal dominant

2. autosomal recessive

3. X-linked recessively

4. dominantly linked to the X chromosome Answer: 3.

264. For the diagnosis of Wilson's disease, the following is decisive:

1. damage to the extrapyramidal system

2. violation of copper metabolism

3. liver damage Answer: 2.

265. A gene defect in Duchenne myopathy is a violation of the synthesis of:

1. dopamine

2. dystrophin protein

3. ceruloplasmin

4. copper-transport ATPase

5. Phenyl-alanine hydroxylase Answer: 2.

CHOOSE ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:

266. Hereditary diseases of the nervous system include:

1. multiple sclerosis

2. torsion dystonia

3. myasthenia gravis

4. minor chorea

5. Huntington's chorea Answer: 2, 5.

267. Symptoms characteristic of Huntington's chorea:

1. start at the age of 20-30 years

2. start at the age of 30 - 50 years

3. autosomal dominant type of inheritance

4. autosomal recessive inheritance pattern

5. development of dementia

6. The effect of therapy depends on the timing of the start of treatment. Answer: 2, 3, 5.

268. Symptoms characteristic of Wilson's disease:

1. Kaiser-Fleischer rings

2. muscle atrophy

3. cirrhosis of the liver

4. hyperkinetic syndrome

5. atrophy of the optic discs

6. sensory disturbances

7. akinetic-rigid syndrome Answer: 1, 3, 4, 7.

269. Symptoms characteristic of Duchenne myopathy:

1. myocardial dystrophy

2. pseudohypertrophy of the muscles of the legs

3. atrophy of the muscles of the distal extremities

4. muscle atrophy of the proximal limbs

5. increase in the content of CPK in the urine

6. decrease in the content of CPK in the urine

7. start at the age of 2 - 5 years

8. beginning at the age of 10-15 years Answer: 1, 2, 4, 5, 7.

270. Symptoms characteristic of Wilson's disease:

1. hypercupuria

2. decrease in the content of ceruloplasmin

3. increased copper content in bile

4. decrease in copper content in urine

5. Kaiser-Fleischer rings

6. increase in the content of ceruloplasmin

7. Decreased copper content in bile Answer: 1, 2, 5, 7.

SET MATCH:

271. Syndrome: Karyotype:

1. Klinefelter A. 47, XXY

2. Shereshevsky-Turner B. 47, XX+21

3. Dauna V. 45, XO

4. polysomy on the X chromosome D. 47, XXX

Answer: 1 - A 2 - C 3 - B 4 - D

272. Disease: Therapy:

1. Huntington's chorea A. d-penicillamine

2. Wilson's disease B. essentiale

B. haloperidol

D. zinc sulfate Answer: 1 - C 2 - A, B, D.

273. Disease: Type of mutation:

1. Huntington's chorea A. aneuploidy

2. Down's disease B. dynamic / expansion /

3. Syndrome of the fragile X-chromosome C. polyploidy Answer: 1 - B 2 - A 3 - B

274. Disease: Therapy:

1. Parkinson's disease A. antelepsin

2. Spasmodic torticollis B. nakom

B. cyclodol

G. relanium Answer: 1 - B, C 2 - A, D

275. Disease: Symptom:

1. Duchenne myopathy A. trembling hyperkinesis

2. torsion dystonia B. "duck gait"

3. Wilson's disease B. muscular dyskinesia

D. muscular atrophy Answer: 1 - B, D 2 - C 3 - A

TOPIC 11. Syringomyelia.

CHOOSE ALL CORRECT ANSWERS:

276. Syringomyelia is characterized by lesions:

1. ponytail

2. dorsal horns of the spinal cord

3. anterior roots of the spinal cord

4. medulla oblongata

5. subcortical nuclei Answer: 2, 4.

277. Syringomyelia is characterized by:

1. dysraphic status

2. painless burns

3. flaccid paresis of the limbs

4. epileptic seizures

5. pelvic disorders Answer: 1, 2, 3.

278. Differential diagnosis of syringomyelia is carried out with:

1.intramedullary tumor

2. extramedullary tumor

3. multiple sclerosis

4. cranio-vertebral anomaly

5. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Answer: 1, 4.

279. In the treatment of syringomyelia, the following are used:

1. radiotherapy

2. surgical treatment

3. anticholinesterase drugs

4. hemosorption

5. plasmapheresis Answer: 1, 2, 3.

280. For the diagnosis of syringomyelia, the following are used:

1. biochemical blood tests

2. methods of molecular diagnostics

5. karyotyping Answer: 3, 4.

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