Nursing care in otolaryngology tests. Tests in otorhinolaryngology for students
Anatomy of the nose
001. Joana is:
a) posterior sections of the upper nasal meatus
b) opening from the nasal cavity to the nasopharynx
c) posterior parts of the lower nasal meatus
d) posterior sections of the common nasal meatus
Correct answer: b
002.The outflow of blood from the external nose occurs in:
a) ophthalmic vein
b) anterior facial vein
c) thyroid vein
d) lingual vein
Correct answer: b
003. Glabella is:
a) a point above the anterior nasal axis
b) zone of transition of the root of the nose to the level of the eyebrows
c) area of the back of the nose
d) area of the anterior protruding part of the chin
Correct answer: b
004. The vomer is part of the wall of the nasal cavity:
a) top
b) bottom
c) lateral
d) medial
Correct answer: g
005. Thickness of the perforated plate of the ethmoid bone:
b) 2 – 3 mm
c) 4 – 5 mm
d) 5 – 6 mm
Correct answer: b
006. The turbinates are located on the wall of the nasal cavity:
a) top
b) bottom
c) lateral
d) medial
Correct answer: in
007. The composition of the outer wall of the nasal cavity includes:
a) nasal bone
b) frontal, parietal bones
c) main bone
d) palatine bone
Correct answer: a
008. The upper wall of the nasal cavity does not include:
a) frontal bone
b) palatine bone
c) nasal bone
d) main bone
Correct answer: b
009. In the nasal cavity there are turbinates:
a) top, bottom, middle
b) upper, lower, lateral
c) only upper, lower
d) medial, lateral
Correct answer: a
010. With anterior rhinoscopy you can more often examine:
a) only the inferior turbinate
b) only the middle turbinate
c) superior nasal concha
d) inferior and middle turbinates
Correct answer: g
011. The vestigial Jacobson's organ in the nasal cavity is located:
a) on the bottom wall
b) on the nasal septum
c) in the middle turbinate
d) in the middle meatus
Correct answer: b
012. The newborn has:
a) two nasal turbinates
b) three nasal turbinates
c) four nasal turbinates
d) five turbinates
Correct answer: in
013. The nasolacrimal duct opens:
a) in the upper nasal passage
b) middle nasal meatus
c) lower nasal passage
d) common nasal passage
Correct answer: in
014. The middle meatus opens:
a) all paranasal sinuses
b) nasolacrimal duct
c) anterior sinuses
d) posterior cells of the ethmoidal labyrinth
Correct answer: in
015. Open into the upper nasal passage:
a) frontal sinus
b) posterior ethmoid cells, main sinus
c) all cells of the ethmoid labyrinth
d) nasolacrimal duct
Correct answer: b
016. Kisselbach's area in the nasal cavity is located:
a) in the anterior inferior part of the nasal septum
b) in the upper part of the nasal septum
c) in the mucous membrane of the inferior nasal concha
d) in the mucous membrane of the middle turbinate
Correct answer: a
017. The lower nasal passage opens:
a) maxillary sinus
b) frontal sinus
c) posterior cells of the ethmoidal labyrinth
d) nasolacrimal duct
Correct answer: g
018. The main role in warming the air in the nasal cavity is played by:
a) bone tissue
b) cartilage tissue
c) cavernous tissue
d) mucous glands
Correct answer: in
019. A feature of the structure of the nasal mucosa is:
a) the presence of goblet cells
b) the presence of mucous glands
c) the presence of cavernous plexuses in the submucosal layer
d) the presence of ciliated epithelium
Correct answer: in
020. Upper resonators do not include:
a) nose and sinuses
b) pharynx and vestibule of the larynx
c) subglottic space of the larynx
d) cranial cavity
Correct answer: in
021. Molecules of odorous substances are called:
a) opsonins
b) odorivectors
c) endoporphyrins
d) otoconia
Correct answer: b
022. Diaphanoscopy is:
a) identifying areas of different temperatures
b) X-ray method of examination
c) transillumination of the nasal sinuses with an electric light bulb
d) ultrasound examination
Correct answer: in
023. The main functions of the nose do not include:
a) respiratory
b) taste
c) olfactory
d) protective
Correct answer: b
024. Nasal breathing in newborns is mainly carried out through:
a) upper nasal passage
b) middle nasal meatus
c) lower nasal passage
d) common nasal passage
Correct answer: g
025. The main flow of inhaled air in the nasal cavity passes through the nasal passage:
a) top
b) average
c) lower
Correct answer: g
026. Parosmia is:
a) decreased sense of smell
b) lack of smell
c) perverted sense of smell
d) olfactory hallucinations
Correct answer: in
027. Kakosmia is:
a) decreased sense of smell
b) lack of smell
c) perverted sense of smell
d) feeling of a bad odor
Correct answer: g
028. The nose and its paranasal sinuses supply blood to:
a) system of external and internal carotid arteries
b) vertebral artery system
c) lingual artery system
d) superior thyroid artery
Correct answer: a
029. Lymph from the anterior parts of the nasal cavity is drained to the lymph nodes:
a) in the retropharyngeal lymph nodes
b) into the submandibular lymph nodes
c) to the anterior cervical lymph nodes
d) into the deep cervical lymph nodes
Correct answer: b
030. Motor innervation of the nasal muscles is carried out:
a) lingual nerve
b) trigeminal nerve
c) facial nerve
d) vagus nerve
Correct answer: in
031. The lower respiratory tract includes:
a) larynx
c) paranasal sinuses
d) bronchi
Correct answer: g
032. The transport function in the nasal cavity is performed by the epithelium:
a) olfactory
b) multilayer flat
c) cubic
d) flickering
Correct answer: g
033. Nerve fibers pass through the perforated plate of the ethmoid bone:
a) wandering
b) olfactory
c) 1st branch of the trigeminal
d) 2 branches of the trigeminal
Correct answer: b
034. In humans, olfactory sensitivity increases with:
a) traumatic brain injury
b) tumors of the frontal lobe of the brain
c) epidural hematoma
d) Addison's disease
Correct answer: g
035. The ostiomeatal complex does not include:
a) anterior end of the middle turbinate
b) nasal septum
c) uncinate process and semilunar fissure
d) ethmoid bladder
Correct answer: b
036. The main function of the nasal septum:
a) resonator
b) protective
c) division of the nasal cavity into two halves
d) olfactory
Correct answer: in
037. The most active mucociliary transport in the mucous membrane of the nasal cavity occurs on:
a) superior nasal concha
b) middle turbinate
c) inferior nasal concha
d) nasal septum
Correct answer: in
038. In the proper layer of the inferior turbinates there are:
a) arterial plexuses
b) cavernous venous plexuses
c) vascular capillary formations
d) mixed choroid plexuses
Correct answer: b
039. The cavernous venous plexus in the nasal cavity performs the function of:
a) respiratory
b) heater
c) transport
d) resonator
Correct answer: b
Related information.
1. Otoscopy is an examination
a) pharynx
b) ear
c) larynx
d) nose
2. Pharyngoscopy is an examination
a) pharynx
b) nose
c) ear
d) larynx
3. Indirect laryngoscopy is an examination
a) larynx
b) ear
c) pharynx
d) nose
4. Rhinoscopy is an examination
a) ear
b) pharynx
c) larynx
d) nose
5. Acute otitis media is inflammation
a) middle ear
b) palatine tonsils
c) nasal mucosa
d) pharyngeal mucosa
6. Complications when foreign bodies enter the larynx include
a) pneumonia
b) nosebleed
c) anosmia
d) inflammation of the middle ear
7. A throat swab is taken to exclude
a) diphtheria
b) syphilis
c) tuberculosis
d) salmonellosis
8. Pharyngoscopy is performed using
a) spatula
b) nasal planum
c) ear funnel
d) Kulikovsky needles
9. Puncture of the maxillary sinus is performed using
a) nasopharyngeal mirror
b) Kulikovsky needles
c) ear funnel
d) spatula
10. Adenotomy is removal
a) palatine tonsils
b) nasopharyngeal tonsil
c) lingual tonsil
d) nasal polyps
11. Acute adenoiditis is inflammation
a) nasopharyngeal tonsil
b) nasal mucosa
c) palatine tonsils
d) maxillary sinuses
12. Tonsillotome is necessary for
a) partial removal of the tonsils
b) removal of the nasopharyngeal tonsil
c) removal of the lingual tonsil
d) puncture of the maxillary sinus
13. For acute tonsillitis, a characteristic symptom is
a) nasal breathing disorder
c) pain when swallowing
d) hearing loss
14. Inflammatory diseases of the pharynx include
a) tonsillitis
b) acute laryngitis
c) otitis media
d) bronchitis
15. Anomalies of the external ear include
a) choanal atresia
b) non-fusion of the hard palate
c) microtia
d) macrotia
16. Ear liquorrhea occurs when
a) fracture of the base of the skull and temporal bone
b) nasal injuries
c) ear injuries
c) injuries of the palatine tonsils
17. During otoscopy in children, the auricle is pulled back
a) up and back
b) forward and down
c) forward towards yourself
d) down and back
18. The cause of acute inflammation of the middle ear in children is
a) tonsillitis
b) laryngitis
c) pathology in the nasopharynx
d) pharyngitis
19. The child’s larynx is located at the level of the cervical vertebra
20. Foreign bodies of the larynx are localized in
b) nasopharynx
c) oropharynx
d) bronchi
Diabetes tests in ophthalmology – 20 questions
1. Visual acuity is determined using
a) perimeter
b) tables of Rabkin E.B.
c) tables of Sivtsev D.A.
d) refractometer
2. Visual acuity equal to
3. Peripheral vision characterizes
a) visual acuity
b) field of view
c) dark adaptation
d) light adaptation
4. Cloudiness of the lens is called
a) microphakia
b) cataracts
c) macrophakia
d) myopia
5. Characteristic complaint with mature cataracts
a) lack of object vision
b) discharge from the eye
c) improvement of previously reduced vision
d) pain in the eye
6. Inflammation of the mucous membrane of the eye is called
a) dacryocystitis
b) conjunctivitis
c) dacryoadenitis
d) blepharitis
7. The nature of discharge from the eyes in diphtheria conjunctivitis
a) cloudy with flakes
b) mucopurulent, purulent
c) the color of meat slop
d) there is no discharge
8. The nature of the discharge during gonoblenorrhea
a) cloudy with flakes
b) mucopurulent, purulent
c) the color of meat slop
d) lacrimation
9. Swelling of the eyelids with diphtheria conjunctivitis
a) dense
b) “wooden”, purple-bluish
c) soft, hyperemic
d) absent
10. Gonoblenorrhea of the newborn, if infection occurred during the passage of the child through the birth canal, begins after birth
a) on the 5th day
b) in 2-3 days
c) immediately
d) in 2 weeks
11. To prevent gonoblennorrhea, a solution is instilled into the eyes of newborns
a) 0.25% chloramphenicol
b) 30% sodium sulfacyl
c) 3% collargol
d) furatsilin 1:5000
12. An eye patch is applied when
a) conjunctivitis
b) keratitis
c) eye injury
d) bleforitis
13. Diseases of the eyelids include
c) keratitis, conjunctivitis
d) cataract, aphakia
14. Diseases of the lacrimal apparatus include
a) dacryocystitis, dacryoadenitis
b) blepharitis, stye, chalazion
c) keratitis, conjunctivitis
d) cataract, aphakia
15. The cause of stye is
a) injury
b) infection
c) allergies
d) anemia
16. Inflammation of the cornea is
a) iritis
b) keratitis
c) cyclite
d) blepharitis
17. Sign of congenital glaucoma in a newborn
a) squint
b) increase in corneal size
c) endophthalmos
d) nystagmus
18. Intraocular pressure during penetrating eye injury
a) does not change
b) sharply increased
c) reduced
d) slightly increased
19. In case of a penetrating injury to the eye, the patient must be administered parenterally
a) broad-spectrum antibiotic
b) 40% glucose solution
c) 25% magnesium sulfate solution
d) 1% nicotinic acid solution
20. Emergency care for eye burns with acid
a) rinse eyes with water for 10-20 minutes and 0.1% acetic acid solution
b) rinse eyes with water for 10-20 minutes and 2% sodium bicarbonate solution
c) drip a 30% sodium sulfacyl solution into the conjunctival cavity and administer an antibiotic ointment
d) introduce antibiotic ointment into the conjunctival cavity b
001. Joana is:
a) posterior sections of the upper nasal meatus
b) opening from the nasal cavity to the nasopharynx
c) posterior parts of the lower nasal meatus
d) posterior sections of the common nasal meatus
Correct answer: b
002.The outflow of blood from the external nose occurs in:
a) ophthalmic vein
b) anterior facial vein
c) thyroid vein
d) lingual vein
Correct answer: b
003. Glabella is:
a) a point above the anterior nasal axis
b) zone of transition of the root of the nose to the level of the eyebrows
c) area of the back of the nose
d) area of the anterior protruding part of the chin
Correct answer: b
004. The vomer is part of the wall of the nasal cavity:
a) top
b) bottom
c) lateral
d) medial
Correct answer: g
005. Thickness of the perforated plate of the ethmoid bone:
b) 2 – 3 mm
c) 4 – 5 mm
d) 5 – 6 mm
Correct answer: b
006. The turbinates are located on the wall of the nasal cavity:
a) top
b) bottom
c) lateral
d) medial
Correct answer: in
007. The composition of the outer wall of the nasal cavity includes:
a) nasal bone
b) frontal, parietal bones
c) main bone
d) palatine bone
Correct answer: a
008. The upper wall of the nasal cavity does not include:
a) frontal bone
b) palatine bone
c) nasal bone
d) main bone
Correct answer: b
009. In the nasal cavity there are turbinates:
a) top, bottom, middle
b) upper, lower, lateral
c) only upper, lower
d) medial, lateral
Correct answer: a
010. With anterior rhinoscopy you can more often examine:
a) only the inferior turbinate
b) only the middle turbinate
c) superior nasal concha
d) inferior and middle turbinates
Correct answer: g
011. The vestigial Jacobson's organ in the nasal cavity is located:
a) on the bottom wall
b) on the nasal septum
c) in the middle turbinate
d) in the middle meatus
Correct answer: b
012. The newborn has:
a) two nasal turbinates
b) three nasal turbinates
c) four nasal turbinates
d) five turbinates
Correct answer: in
013. The nasolacrimal duct opens:
a) in the upper nasal passage
b) middle nasal meatus
c) lower nasal passage
d) common nasal passage
Correct answer: in
014. The middle meatus opens:
a) all paranasal sinuses
b) nasolacrimal duct
c) anterior sinuses
d) posterior cells of the ethmoidal labyrinth
Correct answer: in
015. Open into the upper nasal passage:
a) frontal sinus
b) posterior ethmoid cells, main sinus
c) all cells of the ethmoid labyrinth
d) nasolacrimal duct
Correct answer: b
016. Kisselbach's area in the nasal cavity is located:
a) in the anterior inferior part of the nasal septum
b) in the upper part of the nasal septum
c) in the mucous membrane of the inferior nasal concha
d) in the mucous membrane of the middle turbinate
Correct answer: a
017. The lower nasal passage opens:
a) maxillary sinus
b) frontal sinus
c) posterior cells of the ethmoidal labyrinth
d) nasolacrimal duct
Correct answer: g
018. The main role in warming the air in the nasal cavity is played by:
a) bone tissue
b) cartilage tissue
c) cavernous tissue
d) mucous glands
Correct answer: in
019. A feature of the structure of the nasal mucosa is:
a) the presence of goblet cells
b) the presence of mucous glands
c) the presence of cavernous plexuses in the submucosal layer
d) the presence of ciliated epithelium
Correct answer: in
020. Upper resonators do not include:
a) nose and sinuses
b) pharynx and vestibule of the larynx
c) subglottic space of the larynx
d) cranial cavity
Correct answer: in
021. Molecules of odorous substances are called:
a) opsonins
b) odorivectors
c) endoporphyrins
d) otoconia
Correct answer: b
022. Diaphanoscopy is:
a) identifying areas of different temperatures
b) X-ray method of examination
c) transillumination of the nasal sinuses with an electric light bulb
d) ultrasound examination
Correct answer: in
023. The main functions of the nose do not include:
a) respiratory
b) taste
c) olfactory
d) protective
Correct answer: b
024. Nasal breathing in newborns is mainly carried out through:
a) upper nasal passage
b) middle nasal meatus
c) lower nasal passage
d) common nasal passage
Correct answer: g
025. The main flow of inhaled air in the nasal cavity passes through the nasal passage:
a) top
b) average
c) lower
Correct answer: g
026. Parosmia is:
a) decreased sense of smell
b) lack of smell
c) perverted sense of smell
d) olfactory hallucinations
Correct answer: in
027. Kakosmia is:
a) decreased sense of smell
b) lack of smell
c) perverted sense of smell
d) feeling of a bad odor
Correct answer: g
028. The nose and its paranasal sinuses supply blood to:
a) system of external and internal carotid arteries
b) vertebral artery system
c) lingual artery system
d) superior thyroid artery
Correct answer: a
029. Lymph from the anterior parts of the nasal cavity is drained to the lymph nodes:
a) in the retropharyngeal lymph nodes
b) into the submandibular lymph nodes
c) to the anterior cervical lymph nodes
d) into the deep cervical lymph nodes
Correct answer: b
030. Motor innervation of the nasal muscles is carried out:
a) lingual nerve
b) trigeminal nerve
c) facial nerve
d) vagus nerve
Correct answer: in
031. The lower respiratory tract includes:
a) larynx
c) paranasal sinuses
d) bronchi
Correct answer: g
032. The transport function in the nasal cavity is performed by the epithelium:
a) olfactory
b) multilayer flat
c) cubic
d) flickering
Correct answer: g
033. Nerve fibers pass through the perforated plate of the ethmoid bone:
a) wandering
b) olfactory
c) 1st branch of the trigeminal
d) 2 branches of the trigeminal
Correct answer: b
034. In humans, olfactory sensitivity increases with:
a) traumatic brain injury
b) tumors of the frontal lobe of the brain
c) epidural hematoma
d) Addison's disease
Correct answer: g
035. The ostiomeatal complex does not include:
a) anterior end of the middle turbinate
b) nasal septum
c) uncinate process and semilunar fissure
d) ethmoid bladder
Correct answer: b
036. The main function of the nasal septum:
a) resonator
b) protective
c) division of the nasal cavity into two halves
d) olfactory
Correct answer: in
037. The most active mucociliary transport in the mucous membrane of the nasal cavity occurs on:
a) superior nasal concha
b) middle turbinate
c) inferior nasal concha
d) nasal septum
Correct answer: in
038. In the proper layer of the inferior turbinates there are:
a) arterial plexuses
b) cavernous venous plexuses
c) vascular capillary formations
d) mixed choroid plexuses
Correct answer: b
039. The cavernous venous plexus in the nasal cavity performs the function of:
a) respiratory
b) heater
c) transport
TESTS IN OTHRINOLARYNGOLOGY FOR STUDENTS.
(=#) SECTION 1. ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, DISEASES OF THE NOSE AND PARONAL SINUSES.
001. List the turbinates of the nose:
a) Upper, lower, middle;
b) Upper, lower, medial;
c) Upper, lower;
d) Lateral, medial;
e) Lateral, lower.
002. The nasal septum is formed by:
a) Triangular cartilage, ethmoid labyrinth, vomer;
d) Maxillary sinus;
e) Oropharynx.
013. Name the main symptoms of ozena, except:
a) Fetid runny nose;
b) Lack of smell;
c) Viscous secretion;
d) Wide nasal passages;
e) Hypertrophy of the nasal turbinates.
014. How many stages are distinguished during acute rhinitis, except:
a) Stage of dry irritation;
b) Stage of mucous discharge;
c) Stage of bloody discharge;
d) Stage of mucopurulent discharge.
015. What types of tamponade are used to stop bleeding, except:
a) Average tamponade;
b) Anterior tamponade;
c) Posterior tamponade.
016. Rules for removing foreign bodies from the nose in children, except:
a) Fixation of the child;
b) Round foreign bodies are rolled out with a hook;
c) Flat foreign bodies are removed with tweezers;
d) They are pushed into the nasopharynx.
017. What symptoms are typical for a deviated nasal septum, how to recognize this disease, what should be the treatment, except:
b) Anterior rhinoscopy;
c) Surgical treatment;
d) Putrid smell.
018. Clinical signs of a bleeding nasal polyp, its localization, except:
a) Cartilaginous part of the nasal septum;
b) Vomer;
c) Frequent nosebleeds.
019. What intracranial complications are observed in diseases of the paranasal sinuses, with the exception of:
a) Abscess of the occipital lobe;
b) Thrombosis of the cavernous sinus;
c) Abscess of the frontal lobe;
d) Meningitis.
020. Name the causes of a deviated nasal septum:
a) Anomalies in the development of the facial skeleton and injuries to the nose;
b) Nose injuries;
c) Chronic hypertrophic rhinitis;
d) Nasal polyposis;
d) Acute rhinitis.
(=#) SECTION 2. ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, DISEASES OF THE PHARYNX.
001. What anatomical formation is a continuation of the retropharyngeal space?
b) Posterior mediastinum;
c) Parapharyngeal space;
d) Paramygdaloid space;
e) Paravertebral space.
002. How many lymphoid formations make up the Waldeyer-Pirogov lymphoid ring?
003. At what age do retropharyngeal abscesses occur?
a) First year of life;
b) 10 years of age;
c) 30 years of age;
d) 50 years of age;
d) Over 70 years old.
004. What large arterial vessel is located near the lower pole of the palatine tonsil?
a) Internal carotid artery;
b) External carotid artery;
c) Common carotid artery;
d) Thyroid artery;
d) Main.
005. Name the forms of hypertrophic pharyngitis:
a) Granular, lateral;
b) Catarrhal;
c) Edema;
d) Compensated.
006. Specify the levels of anatomical narrowing of the esophagus?
a) Entrance to the esophagus, level of tracheal bifurcation, level of the diaphragm;
b) Level of tracheal bifurcation, level of the diaphragm;
c) Level of the aortic arch, level of the diaphragm;
d) Entrance to the stomach, level of the aortic arch, level of the diaphragm.
007. List the methods for examining the nasopharynx in children?
a) Posterior rhinoscopy, digital examination;
b) Anterior rhinoscopy;
c) X-ray, posterior rhinoscopy, digital examination, probing;
d) Indirect laryngoscopy;
d) Probing.
008. Specify the characteristic causes of recurrence of adenoids:
a) Violation of protein metabolism in the body;
b) Allergic reactivity of the body, technical errors when performing adenotomy;
c) Technical errors when performing adenotomy;
d) Removal of the tonsil in early childhood.
009. Specify the most characteristic objective signs of chronic adenoiditis:
a) “Grey” and “white” Vojacek spots on the mucous membrane of the nose;
b) Mucous or mucous-purulent discharge in the nose;
c) Thickening of the side ridges;
d) Smoothness of the central sulcus;
e) Gothic palate, mucous or mucopurulent discharge in the nose, thickening of the lateral ridges.
010. Symptoms for ulcerative-necrotizing tonsillitis, except:
a) The presence of an ulcer at the upper pole of the tonsils;
b) Dirty - gray coating color;
c) Putrid odor from the mouth;
d) No pain;
e) Grayish-yellow coating.
011. Specify the formations where foreign bodies are most often retained in the laryngopharynx, except:
a) Palatine tonsils;
b) Valeculae;
c) Lingual tonsil;
d) Laryngeal ventricles;
e) Pyriform sinuses.
012. Specify the clinical forms of vulgar tonsillitis, except:
a) Catarrhal;
b) Follicular;
c) Lacunar;
d) Phlegmonous;
d) Gangrenous.
013. What infectious diseases can occur with sore throat, with the exception of:
a) Mononucleosis;
b) Diphtheria;
c) Scarlet fever;
e) Epidemic meningitis.
014. Specify the muscles that lift the pharynx, except:
a) Stylopharyngeal;
b) Palatopharyngeal;
c) Palatal - lingual;
d) Pharyngeal constrictors;
d) Tongue - pharyngeal.
015. List conservative methods of treating chronic tonsillitis, except:
a) Washing lacunae;
b) Rinsing and soaking the tonsils with medicinal substances;
c) Physiotherapy;
d) Hyposensitizing therapy;
e) Removal of tonsils.
016. Methods for examining the pharynx include, with the exception of:
a) Posterior rhinoscopy;
b) Mesopharyngoscopy;
c) Digital examination of the nasopharynx;
d) Indirect laryngoscopy;
d) Tracheobronchoscopy.
017. Specify the main functions of the Waldeyer-Pirogov lymphadenoid pharyngeal ring, except:
a) Accommodation;
b) Reflex;
c) Protective;
d) Immunological;
d) Hematopoietic.
018. Therapeutic tactics for peritonsillar abscess, except:
a) Diagnostic puncture;
b) Mouth rinse;
c) Opening the abscess;
d) Conservative therapy;
e) Abscessonsillectomy.
019. List the layers of the pharynx, except:
a) Mucous membrane;
b) Fibrous layer;
c) Vascular layer;
d) Muscles of the pharynx;
e) Fascia of the pharynx.
020. List the most common symptoms of a foreign body in the cervical esophagus, except:
a) Pain when swallowing;
b) Dysphagia;
c) Pain in the epigastric region;
d) Increased salivation;
e) Refusal to eat.
021. Specify methods for diagnosing foreign bodies in the cervical esophagus, except:
a) Indirect pharyngolaryngoscopy;
b) Survey radiography of the cervical esophagus according to Zemtsov;
c) Contrast radiography of the esophagus;
d) Fibroesophagoscopy;
e) Rigid esophagoscopy.
022. List the possible complications that arise from prolonged presence of a foreign body in the esophagus and during its removal, except:
a) Esophagitis, abscess of the esophageal wall;
b) Bleeding from large vessels;
c) Perforation of the esophageal wall;
d) Mediastinitis;
e) Spontaneous pneumothorax.
023. List the most common clinical and radiological signs of parapharyngeal abscesses, except:
a) Neck asymmetry;
b) infiltration and pain of neck tissue, often one-sided;
c) Hyperemia;
d) On the X-ray of the neck according to Zemtsov, there is expansion of the prevertebral space and the presence of gas bubbles;
e) Stiff neck.
024. Specify the symptoms of juvenile angiofibroma
nasopharynx, except:
a) Difficulty in nasal breathing;
b) Nosebleeds;
c) Gothic sky, facial deformation;
d) Replacement of surrounding tissues.
025. What blood diseases are observed
secondary sore throats, with the exception of:
a) Agranulocytosis;
b) Leukemia;
c) Nutritional - toxic aleukia;
d) Capillary toxicosis.
026. Name the degree of enlargement of the nasopharyngeal
tonsils, except:
d) 4 tbsp..
027. Name the vessels and nerves passing through the parapharyngeal space, except:
a) External carotid artery, vertebral artery;
b) Internal carotid artery;
c) Internal jugular artery;
d) Vagus nerve.
028. In what areas of the esophagus are the deepest chemical burns observed, except:
a) In places of physiological constrictions;
b) In places of anatomical narrowings;
c) Mucosa of the esophagus.
(=#) SECTION 3. ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, DISEASES OF THE LARRYN.
001. Name the upper and lower boundaries of the larynx:
a) Epiglottis;
b) Vestibular folds and VI cervical vertebra;
d) Epiglottis and VII cervical vertebra;
e) IV and VI cervical vertebrae;
f) VII cervical vertebra and thyroid cartilage.
002. What type of tracheotomy is performed for laryngeal stenosis in children?
a) Lower tracheotomy;
b) Upper tracheotomy;
c) Medium tracheotomy;
d) Conicotomy.
003. Name the boundaries of the trachea:
a) VI cervical vertebra, V thoracic vertebra;
b) VII cervical vertebra, IV-V thoracic vertebrae;
c) V thoracic vertebra and V cervical vertebra;
d) The lower edge of the thyroid cartilage and the V cervical vertebra;
e) The lower edge of the thyroid cartilage and the VI cervical vertebra.
004. What groups are the internal muscles of the larynx divided into?
a) Elevating and depressing the larynx;
005. In which part of the larynx is the lymphatic network most pronounced?
a) Vestibular department;
b) Middle section;
c) Subglottic region.
006. Which muscle expands the larynx?
a) Shield - cricoid;
b) Scutellum - internal arytenoid;
c) Posterior scoop - cricoid muscle;
d) Thyroid - sublingual.
007. List the main functions of the larynx:
c) Reflex, protective;
e) Respiratory, reflex.
008. The classification of laryngeal cancer includes:
a) 4 stages;
b) 3 stages;
c) 2 stages;
d) 5 stages.
009. Specify the signs of mutational changes in the larynx in young men:
a) A decrease in the angle between the plates of the thyroid cartilage, a protruding upper edge of the thyroid cartilage, an increase in the hyoid bone;
b) Enlargement of the hyoid bone, the laryngeal mucosa is clearly hyperemic, non-closure of the glottis, changes in the strength and timbre of the voice;
c) The laryngeal mucosa is clearly hyperemic, the glottis is not closed, there is a change in the strength and timbre of the voice;
d) Painful swallowing;
e) Cough and hemoptysis.
010. Name the joints of the larynx:
a) Aerial - supraglottic;
b) Signet ring - thyroid, scoop - epiglottis;
c) Signet - arytenoid, signet - thyroid;
d) Shield - supraglottic;
d) Epiglottic - cricoid.
011. Name precancerous diseases of the larynx, except:
a) Papilloma;
b) Fibroma;
c) Tuberculosis;
d) Ventricular cysts;
d) Angioma.
012. The clinical picture of chondroperichondritis of the larynx is characterized, except for:
a) Pain in the larynx, painful swallowing;
b) An increase in the volume of the larynx, thickening of its cartilage;
c) Swelling and infiltration of the laryngeal mucosa;
d) The presence of gray-dirty films in the larynx and pharynx;
e) Impaired laryngeal mobility and stenosis.
013. Laryngoscopy picture in acute laryngitis, except:
a) Infiltration of the mucous membrane;
b) Pinpoint hemorrhages;
d) Swelling of the folds;
e) Singers' nodules.
014. Name the causes of acute laryngitis, except:
a) Infectious diseases;
b) Hypothermia;
d) Occupational hazards;
d) Sore throats.
015. Which cartilages of the larynx are hyaline, except:
a) Thyroid;
b) Arytenoid;
c) Horn-shaped;
d) Epiglottis;
d) Cricoid.
016. Name the external muscles of the larynx, except:
a) Sternum - sublingual;
b) Shield - cricoid;
c) Foreoarytenoid;
e) Sternum - thyroid;
f) Thyroid - sublingual.
017. What is the vestibule of the larynx formed by, except:
a) Valeculae;
b) Epiglottis;
c) The aryle - the supraglottic fold;
d) Arytenoid cartilages;
e) Ventricular folds.
018. Treatment method for acute laryngitis, except:
a) Antibacterial;
b) Infusion of medicinal substances into the larynx;
c) Inhalation;
d) Cauterization of the mucous membrane;
e) Decongestant therapy.
019. Name the clinical forms of chronic laryngitis, except:
a) Catarrhal laryngitis;
b) Subglottic laryngitis;
c) Hyperplastic laryngitis;
d) Atrophic laryngitis;
e) Hypertrophic laryngitis.
020. How is the larynx innervated, except:
a) Superior laryngeal nerve;
b) Vagus nerve;
c) Tongue - pharyngeal nerve, hypoglossal nerve;
d) Inferior laryngeal nerve.
021. Name the forms of chronic hypertrophic laryngitis, except:
a) Limited;
b) Hypertrophic;
c) Diffuse.
022. Specify the anatomical formations of the middle part of the larynx, except:
a) Vestibular folds;
c) Scoop, epiglottis;
d) Laryngeal ventricles.
023. What diseases cause infectious granulomas of ENT organs, except:
a) Tuberculosis;
b) Wegener's granulomatosis;
c) Syphilis;
d) Scleroma;
d) Lupus.
024. Specify the cause of false croup, except:
a) Allergic background;
b) Exudative diathesis;
c) Adenoids;
d) Adenoviral infection.
025. Diagnostic methods for foreign bodies of the trachea and bronchi include, except:
a) X-ray;
b) Tomography;
c) Direct laryngoscopy;
d) Tracheobrochoscopy.
026. In what areas of the respiratory tract are scleroma infiltrates and scars localized, except:
a) Entrance to the nose;
c) Nasopharynx;
d) Laryngopharynx, epiglottis;
e) Subglottic region of the larynx, tracheal bifurcation.
(=#) SECTION 4. ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY AND EAR DISEASES.
001. What is recorded by the semicircular canals:
a) Centrifugal acceleration;
b) Rectilinear movement;
c) Centripetal acceleration;
d) Angular accelerations;
e) Earth's gravity.
002. The etiological factor for mucosal otitis is:
a) Yeast-like fungi;
b) Molds;
c) Viridans streptococcus;
d) Mucous streptococcus;
e) Staphylococcus aureus.
003. In what part of the cranial cavity does the cochlear aqueduct open?
a) Anterior cranial fossa;
b) Posterior cranial fossa;
c) Middle cranial fossa;
d) Diamond-shaped fossa;
e) Sylvian aqueduct.
004. What is an adequate stimulus for the semicircular canals and what is the threshold of its excitability?
a) Angular acceleration 2 - 3 degrees per second;
b) Angular acceleration 4 - 5 degrees per second;
c) Straight-line acceleration 4 - 5 degrees per second;
d) Straight-line acceleration 2 - 3 degrees per second;
e) Angular acceleration 1 - 2 degrees per second.
005. In what frequency zone does the human ear hear tones best?
a) 50 Hz - 100 Hz;
b) 8000 - 10000 Hz;
c) 800 Hz - 2000 Hz;
d) 10000 - 13000 Hz;
e) 10 - 50 Hz.
006. What surgical procedure is performed for acute purulent otitis, complicated by mastoiditis, subperiosteal abscess?
a) Paracentesis of the eardrum;
b) General cavity surgery on the ear;
c) Antrotomy;
d) Atticotomy;
e) Antromastoidotomy.
007. How many openings do the semicircular canals open into the vestibule?
a) Four holes;
b) Five holes;
c) Two holes;
d) One hole;
d) Three holes.
008. What movements are recorded by the vestibule apparatus?
a) Linear acceleration, acceleration due to gravity;
b) Angular acceleration, linear acceleration;
c) Gravity acceleration, angular acceleration;
d) Earth's gravity, angular acceleration;
e) Linear acceleration, angular acceleration.
009. Specify patients with malignant diseases of ENT organs of clinical group II?
a) Incurable;
b) Those who received a course of combined treatment with complete regression of the tumor;
c) After ablastic surgical removal of the tumor and lymph nodes;
d) Primary patients of stages I - II - III - IV without distant metastases;
d) Having a relapse of the disease.
010. What parts does the outer ear consist of, except:
a) Auricle;
b) External auditory canal;
c) Eardrum;
d) Tympanic cavity, Eustachian tube.
011. What parts does the stapes consist of, except:
a) Head;
c) Foot plate;
d) Handle.
012. How is the direction of nystagmus determined?
a) For the fast component;
b) By the slow component;
c) Looking straight;
d) Looking up;
d) Look down.
013. How many degrees of torso deviation are distinguished using the Vojacek test?
a) One degree;
b) Two degrees;
c) Three degrees;
d) Four degrees;
e) Five degrees.
014. What parts does the ear canal consist of?
a) Membranous;
b) Cartilaginous;
c) Membranous - cartilaginous and bone;
d) Bone.
015. In what part of the temporal bone is the inner ear located?
a) Mastoid process;
b) Temporal bone scales;
c) Pyramid;
d) Snail;
d) Occipital bone.
016. Most often microorganisms penetrate into
middle ear through:
a) The auditory tube (rhinotubar tract);
b) External auditory canal with injury to the eardrum;
c) Blood (hematogenous route);
d) From the cranial cavity along the vestibulocochlear and facial nerves (perineural);
e) From the cells of the mastoid process in primary mastoiditis (retrograde path).
017. In chronic catarrhal otitis, the following is observed:
a) Thickening of the eardrum;
b) Protrusion into the external auditory canal;
c) Atrophy and thinning of the eardrum;
d) Hyperemia of the tense part of the eardrum;
e) The light cone is well defined.
018. Necrolysis of what tissue occurs in the middle ear in young children?
a) Connective;
b) Epithelium;
c) Myxoid;
d) Cartilaginous;
d) Bone.
019. Name the muscles of the eardrum:
b) Stapes, a muscle that stretches the tympanic membrane;
c) Tailoring;
d) Lateral, muscle that tightens the tympanic membrane.
020. What is related to the vestibular analyzer?
a) Vestibule, semicircular canals;
b) Semicircular canals;
d) Snail;
d) Organ of Corti.
021. What fluids are present in the inner ear?
a) Perilymph, endolymph;
b) Blood plasma;
c) Exudate;
d) Endolymph;
e) Transudate.
022. Specify the causes of auricular liquorrhea:
a) Craniocerebral trauma, injury to the dura mater during ear surgery, chronic purulent-destructive otitis media, tumors involving the dura mater in the process and causing its destruction;
b) Hydrocephalus;
c) Trauma to the dura mater during ear surgery;
d) Tumors of the anterior lobe of the brain;
e) Chronic purulent-destructive otitis, tumors involving the dura mater in the process and causing its destruction.
023. Specify the main instrumental and invasive methods for diagnosing otogenic abscess of the temporal lobe of the brain:
a) Spinal puncture;
b) Rheoencephalography;
c) M - echoscopy, electroencephalography;
d) Carotid angiography, computed tomography, M - echoscopy, electroencephalography;
e) X-ray of the skull.
024. Among infectious otitis, the most severe necrotic changes are observed in patients:
a) Scarlet fever, measles;
b) Flu, scarlet fever;
d) Diphtheria;
d) Whooping cough.
025. Constant clinical symptoms of chronic suppurative otitis media are:
a) Otorrea;
b) Feeling of noise in the head;
c) Persistent perforation of the eardrum, otorrhea, imbalance;
f) Hearing loss, otorrhea, persistent perforation of the eardrum.
026. Otoscopic diagnostic signs of acute purulent otitis media are:
a) Hyperemia of the eardrum;
b) Dull color and cicatricial changes in the eardrum, protrusion of the eardrum, mucopurulent discharge;
c) Protrusion of the eardrum;
d) Shortening the handle of the hammer and the light cone;
e) Muco-purulent discharge, hyperemia of the eardrum, protrusion of the eardrum;
e) Granulation in the lumen of the external auditory canal.
027. Pain in acute purulent otitis media is caused by pressure from the edematous mucous membrane and exudate on the branch:
a) Facial nerve, lingual - pharyngeal nerve;
b) Trigeminal nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve;
c) Tongue - pharyngeal nerve;
d) vestibulocochlear nerve;
d) Auditory nerve.
028. What vestibular tests with stimulation of the vestibular analyzer are widely used in the clinic?
a) Rotational, caloric, pressor;
b) Caloric, pressor, galvanic;
c) Galvanic;
d) Press room;
d) Chemical.
029. What tuning forks are most often used in hearing research?
a) S-128, S-256;
b) S-256, S-2048;
e) S-2048.
030. Name methods for studying hearing in young children, except:
a) Determination of cochleo-palpebral, cochleo-pupillary, cochleo-laryngeal reflexes;
b) Rotation of the eyes and head under the influence of sound;
c) Objective audiometry;
d) Accumetry, suprathreshold audiometry.
031. What is typical for patients with eardrum defects?
a) Discharge from the ear, hearing loss;
b) Ear congestion, ear discharge;
c) Hearing loss;
d) Increase in temperature;
d) Weakness.
032. What groups of reflexes arise during vestibular stimulation?
a) Sensory reaction, vegetative reaction, somatic reaction;
b) Autonomic reaction;
c) Somatic reaction;
d) Vestibular reaction, somatic reaction;
e) Otolithic reaction, vegetative reaction, somatic reaction.
033. In what ways is hearing research carried out using speech?
a) Conversational speech, whispered speech, screaming with muffling of the opposite ear with a rattle;
b) Whispering speech, colloquial speech;
c) Audiometry;
d) Scream with muffling of the opposite ear with a ratchet;
e) Tuning fork research.
034. Causes of diffuse inflammation of the external auditory canal, except:
a) Mastoiditis;
b) Mechanical injury;
c) Thermal factors;
d) Chemical irritation;
d) Infection.
035. The clinical feature of acute otitis in children is the presence, except:
a) Phenomena of intestinal dyspepsia;
b) Phenomena of meningism;
c) Drowsiness, lethargy;
d) Vestibular disorders;
e) Hepatolienal disorders.
036. List the main therapeutic measures for patients with intracranial complications, except:
a) Surgical treatment;
b) Massive antibacterial therapy;
c) Dehydration;
d) Detoxification;
d) Hormone therapy.
037. Name the quadrants of the eardrum, except:
a) Anterior-superior;
b) Anterior - lower;
c) Medial;
d) Posterior - superior;
e) Posterior - lower.
038. Which parts of the auditory analyzer can be affected by neuritis of the auditory nerve, except:
a) Receptor department;
b) Conducting pathways;
c) Central department;
d) Vestibule of the cochlea.
039. A longitudinal fracture of the pyramid of the temporal bone is characterized, except:
a) Stepped protrusion in the bony part of the external auditory canal;
b) Conductive hearing loss;
c) Rupture of the eardrum;
d) Rupture of the capsule of the labyrinth;
d) Liquorrhea.
040. What symptoms can be used to diagnose mastoiditis, except:
a) Copious discharge from the ear;
b) Protruding ear;
c) Pain on palpation of the mastoid process;
d) Reduced pneumatization of the mastoid process;
e) Ear congestion.
041. Name tuning fork experiments for diagnosing otosclerosis, except:
a) Jelly Experience;
b) Rinne's experience;
c) Tsitovich’s experience;
d) Federici's experience;
e) Bing's experience.
042. Specify the main signs of epitympanitis, except:
a) Central perforation into the mesotympanum;
b) Marginal perforation of the eardrum;
c) Foul-smelling purulent secretion;
d) Hearing loss;
e) Damage to the bone structures of the ear.
043. What signs are characterized by chronic purulent otitis media, except:
a) Granulation;
b) Prolonged suppuration from the ear;
c) Persistent perforation of the eardrum;
d) Hearing loss;
e) Presence of wax in the external auditory canal.
044. What applies to the sound-conducting section of the auditory analyzer, except:
a) Auricle;
b) Organ of Corti;
c) Auditory canal;
d) Tympanic cavity with contents;
d) Snail.
045. Specify three clinical forms of otogenic sepsis, except:
a) Septicemia;
b) Septicopyemia;
c) Respiratory syndrome;
d) Bacterial shock.
046. With otogenic abscess of the left temporal lobe of the brain in right-handed people, the following are typical, except:
a) Headache aggravated by tapping on the skull;
b) Hemiparesis on the left;
c) Amnestic aphasia;
d) Bradycardia;
e) General lethargy, lethargy, drowsiness;
f) Congestion in the fundus.
047. Name the stages in the development of otogenic brain abscess, except:
a) Initial;
b) Latent;
d) Acute;
d) Terminal.
048. Name the identification points of the tympanic membrane, except:
a) Short process of the malleus;
b) Hammer handle;
c) Front and back folds;
d) Light cone;
e) Quadrants.
049. In otogenic purulent meningitis, changes in the cerebrospinal fluid are characteristic, except for:
a) Increased pressure;
b) Change in transparency;
c) An increase in the number of cellular elements, mainly neutrophils;
d) Increase in sugar and chlorides;
e) Increased protein content.
050. Specify the symptoms of diffuse otogenic purulent meningitis, except:
a) Intense headache, nausea;
b) Severe condition and high body temperature;
c) Positive Kernig and Brudzinski symptoms, stiff neck;
d) Trismus of the masticatory muscles;
e) Forced position.
051. Specify therapeutic measures for chronic catarrhal otitis media, except:
a) Surgical manual: adenotomy, removal of hypertrophied posterior ends of the nasal turbinates, choanal polyp;
b) Parameatal blockades;
c) Blowing the auditory tubes;
d) Vibromassage of the eardrum;
d) Physiotherapy.
052. Indicate what surgical procedures are performed for chronic exudative otitis, except:
a) Myringotomy;
b) Tympanopuncture;
c) General cavity surgery on the ear;
d) Shunting of the tympanic cavity;
e) Transmastoid drainage of the antrum.
053. Specify therapeutic measures for acute catarrhal otitis media, except:
a) Anti-inflammatory, decongestant, hyposensitizing therapy;
b) Antrotomy;
c) Vasoconstrictor nasal drops;
d) Physiotherapy;
d) Blowing out the auditory tubes.
054. The otoscopic picture of catarrhal otitis media is characterized by, except:
a) Retraction of the eardrum;
b) Shortening the hammer handle;
c) Vivid hyperemia of the eardrum;
d) Shortening of the light reflex;
e) Prominence of the posterior fold.
055. Specify instrumental methods for diagnosing otosclerosis, except:
a) Tone threshold audiometry;
b) Speech audiometry;
c) Electroencephalography;
d) Acoustic impedance and tympanometry;
e) Experience with tuning forks Federici, Rinne.
056. Name the main causes of cochlear neuritis, except:
a) Injuries and inflammatory effects of the middle and inner ear;
b) Toxic effects;
c) Disease of the central nervous system;
d) Disease of the lymphatic system;
e) A disease that causes changes in the rheology and composition of the blood.
057. What diseases should Meniere’s disease be differentiated from, except:
a) Neuroma of the VIII pair;
b) Hydrocephalus;
c) Leptomeningitis of the cerebellopontine angle;
d) Labyrinthitis;
e) Vertebrogenic vestibular dysfunction.
058. Name the operations performed for Meniere’s disease, except:
a) Drainage of the endolymphatic sac;
b) Crossing the drum string;
c) Excision of the tympanic plexus;
d) Operation Arelanza;
e) Ossiculotomy.
059. Meniere's disease is characterized by, except:
a) Fluctuating hearing loss;
b) Attacks of dizziness;
c) Low-frequency hearing loss in the early stage of the disease;
d) Positive FUNG on the affected side;
e) Negative experience of Federici on the losing side.
060. Nystagmus is not characterized by:
a) Direction;
b) Planes;
c) Pupil reactions;
d) Amplitude;
a) Spontaneous, optical;
b) Pressor;
c) Kinetic;
d) Caloric;
e) Post-rotational; positional.
062. The cause of deafness in a child during intrauterine development can be, except:
a) Infection;
b) Intoxication;
c) Immunological conflict;
d) Incorrect position of the fetus;
e) Genetic diseases.
063. What anatomical formations are located on the medial wall of the tympanic cavity, except:
b) Drum string;
c) Oval window;
d) Round window;
e) Facial nerve.
064. What experiments are used to study bone conduction, except:
a) Weber's experience;
b) Schwabach's experiment;
c) Rinne's experience;
d) Vojacek's experience;
d) Federici's experience.
065. Name the main groups of air cells, except:
a) Apical;
b) Periantral, angular;
c) Perisinous;
d) Perifacial;
d) Rear.
066. What parts of the central nervous system are the peripheral receptors of the vestibular analyzer connected to, except:
a) Spinal cord (anterior and lateral columns);
b) Cerebellum;
c) Reticular formation;
d) Cerebral cortex;
e) Frontal lobe.
067. What types of reactions occur when the semicircular canals are irritated, except:
a) Dizziness;
b) Nystagmus;
c) Change in heart rate;
d) Deviation of the head towards the slow component of nystagmus;
e) Adiadochokinesis.
068. The patency of the auditory tubes is determined, except for:
a) According to Politzer;
b) According to Valsalva;
c) According to Tainby;
d) Ear manometry;
d) Tympanometry.
069. What departments are distinguished in the membranous labyrinth, except:
a) Membranous passage of the cochlea;
b) Uterus;
c) Pouch;
d) Semicircular canals;
e) Cover membrane.
070. Name the types of structure of the mastoid process, except:
a) Pneumatic;
b) Sclerotic;
c) Cortical;
d) Diploetic;
d) Mixed.
071. Factors contributing to the occurrence of a boil in the external auditory canal, except:
a) Dermatitis;
b) Purulent otitis media;
c) Adhesive otitis media;
d) Skin injuries;
e) Diabetes mellitus.
072. Specify the indications for general cavity sanitizing surgery on the ear, except:
a) Chronic purulent-destructive epitympanitis;
b) Cholesteatoma of the middle ear;
c) Chronic purulent otitis media with intracranial complications;
d) Acute purulent otitis media;
e) Chronic purulent otitis media, epitympanitis, facial nerve paresis.
073. In case of combined damage to the outer and middle ear, it is possible, except:
a) Bleeding from the sigmoid sinus and jugular vein bulb;
b) Paralysis of the facial seal;
c) Limited and diffuse labyrinth;
d) Ear liquorrhea;
e) Paralysis of the glossopharyngeal nerve.
074. Specify the indications for paracentesis of the tympanic membrane in young children, except:
a) Hyperthermia, intoxication;
b) Restless behavior;
c) Marked narrowing of the external auditory canal;
d) Infiltration, hyperemia and protrusion of the eardrum;
e) Absence of otorrhea.
075. What layers does the eardrum consist of, except:
a) Epidermis;
b) Fibrous layer;
c) Choroid;
d) Mucous membrane.
076. Reasons for the formation of sulfur plugs, except:
a) Acute otitis media;
b) Metabolic disorders in the body;
c) Narrowness of the ear canal;
d) Increased viscosity of sulfur.
077. What parts does the middle ear consist of, except:
a) Tympanic cavity;
b) Snail;
c) Eustachian tube;
d) Antrum.
078. List the layers of the tympanic membrane in the tense part, except:
a) Epidermis;
b) Fibrous layer;
c) Mucous membrane;
d) Muscle layer.
079. Name the floors of the tympanic cavity, except:
a) Epitympanum;
b) Mesotympanum;
c) Hypotympanum;
d) Upper, middle.
080. What sections is the bone labyrinth divided into, except:
a) Snail;
b) Sac, utricle;
c) Vestibule;
d) Semicircular canals.
081. Name the degrees of nystagmus, except:
a) First;
b) Second;
c) Third;
