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With inflammation of the nose and paranasal sinuses, intracranial complications occur

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In what form of chronic purulent otitis media are intracranial complications more likely to develop?

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1. The anterior part of the nasal septum is formed by cartilage:

QUADAGONAL CARTILAGE

2. The duct of the maxillary sinus opens into the nasal passage:

3. The maxillary (Maxillary) sinuses are finally developing:

4. Antibacterial drops are used for acute rhinitis:

5. In case of nosebleeds, the correct position of the head is:
-HEAD IN A FLIGHT POSITION OR SLIGHTLY TILT FORWARD

6. Sphenoiditis is inflammation of the sinus:
-WEDGE-shaped

7. With inflammation of the maxillary sinus, the characteristic localization of pain is:
- PAIN IN THE MAXIMUM SINUS AREA ON BOTH SIDES, NOSE ROOT, ORBITS, TEMPORAL REGION, IN THE BRAIN COMPARTMENT OF THE SKULL

8. A strip of pus in the middle meatus is a sign of:
- MAXILLARY SINUS (INFLECTION OF THE MAXILLARY SINUS)

9. A characteristic sign of sphenoiditis is:
-CONSTANT PAIN IN THE occipital part of the head, profuse discharge of pus and mucus from the nose, deterioration of the sense of smell. FEELING OF CONSTANT UNPLEASANT ODOR, GENERAL INTOXICATION

10. The mucous membrane of the pharynx is equipped with ciliated epithelium in the area:

Nasopharynx(upper part of the pharynx)

11. Foreign bodies in the nasal cavity are typical for children aged:
-UP TO 5-7 YEARS OLD

12. The main sinuses are located:
-IN THE BODY OF THE WEDGE-FOID BONE????

13. The most dangerous complication of a nasal boil is:
-LYMPHADENITIS(INDUCTION OF LYMPH VESSELS), THROMBOPHLEBITIS OF FACIAL VEINS, SEPSIS

14. The nature of discharge during the first stage of acute rhinitis

NO ALLOCATIONS

15. Inflammation of the frontal sinus is designated by the term:
-FRONTIT

16. It is contraindicated for a patient with hypertension to soak tampons during nosebleeds:

SOLUTION OF EPHEDRINE

17. Localization of pain during inflammation of the sphenoid sinus:
-HEADACHE IN THE AREA OF THE occipital OR DEPTH OF THE HEAD, headaches in the eye sockets. PARIETO-TEMPORAL REGION

18. The correct position of a patient with sinusitis when administering drops into the nose:
-

19. On the lateral wall of the nasal cavity there is a concha:
-

20. Open into the lower nasal passage:
-NASOLACRIMAL CHANNEL

21. The nature of discharge during the second stage of acute rhinitis:
-TRANSPARENT

22. The term “cacosmia” means:

UNPLEASANT SMELL

23. The most dangerous complication of a foreign body in the nasal cavity:
-NASAL BREATHING DIFFICULTY

24. The length of the turunda during anterior nasal tamponade in an adult should be:
-60-70 CM

25. Ozena is the form of:
-

26. Swelling of the upper eyelid is characteristic of sinus lesions:
-FRONTAL. GRID

27. The olfactory zone is located in the area:
-

28. Localization of pain in the back of the head is typical for:
-SPHENOIDITIS (Sphenoid SINUS)

29. To diagnose chronic allergic rhinitis, the following is used:
-

30. Trepanopuncture of the sinus is a method of treatment:
-FRONTITA

31. The Kisselbach zone is located:
-IN THE FRONT OF THE NASAL SEPTUM

32. Rhinogenic orbital complications of sinusitis include:
-

33. Digital examination of the nasopharynx is performed for diagnosis:
-ADENOIDS

34. The causative agent of ulcerative necrotic tonsillitis is:
- SPIROCHETES OF VINCENT, SPINDLE-SHAPED ROC

35. The discovery of a dirty-gray, difficult-to-remove coating on the tonsil is typical for:
-DIPHTHERIA

36. Wide opening of the abscess is a method of treatment:
-

37. Characteristic signs of paratonsillitis are:
-

38. Indications for washing tonsil lacunae are:

39. Adenoids are located in the following section of the pharynx:

40. The mouth of the auditory tube is located:

41. The third degree of enlargement of the adenoids is characterized by the closure of the vomer:

42. A characteristic sign of follicular tonsillitis is:

43. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are contraindicated in the treatment of:

44. The detection of white, loose plaque on the tonsils is typical for:

45. The indication for tonsillectomy is a previous disease:

46. ​​Difficulty in nasal breathing, snoring at night are typical for:

47. Reverse development of lymphoid tissue in children occurs:

48. A characteristic sign of lacunar angina is:

49. Asymmetry of the pharynx is characteristic of:

50. The formation of bubbles on the mucous membrane of the soft palate is characteristic of:

51. Recurrent otitis is a characteristic complication:

52. The term “adenotomy” means:

53. Among the cartilages that form the larynx, the unpaired one is:

54. It borders on the membranous part of the trachea:

55. A characteristic sign of subglottic laryngitis is:

57. Inflammation of the larynx is designated by the term:

58. The most characteristic sign of acute laryngitis is:

59. If a foreign body of the larynx is suspected, the following emergency care is required:

60. The conical ligament is located between:

61. A characteristic sign of laryngeal diphtheria is:

62. If a foreign body of the esophagus is suspected, emergency care is performed:

63. In case of chemical burns of the esophagus, emergency assistance is required in the form of lavage of the esophagus and stomach:

64. Indications for tracheotomy are:

65. Complications of a tracheal foreign body include:

66. A characteristic sign of subglottic laryngitis is:

67. An attack of subglottic laryngitis most often occurs at the age of:

68. The most dangerous complication of esophageal injury:

69. Sign of a foreign body in the esophagus:

70. Acute aphonia is a sign of:

71. The “pop” symptom is characteristic of:

72. The larynx in an adult is located at the level of:

73. The element of the middle ear is:

74. A healthy ear can hear spoken speech at a distance of no more than:

75. A positive “tragus” symptom in a child of the first year of life serves as a sign of:

76. When introducing drops into the ear, the temperature of the liquid should be:

77. Itching in the external auditory canal is a sign of:

78. A drug contraindicated for the treatment of otitis media is:

79. Labyrinthitis is an inflammation of:

80. BTE novocaine blockade is a method of treatment:

81. The otolithic apparatus is located:

82. Nystagmus is a sign of damage:

83. The auditory tube connects the tympanic cavity:

84. The semicircular canals are an element of:

85. A positive “tragus symptom” in an adult is characteristic of:

86. Deterioration of hearing after swimming is typical for:

87. To test vestibular function the following is used:

89. If blood leaks from the external auditory canal, it is recommended:

90. Protrusion of the auricle, pain in the area behind the ear is a sign of:

91. A characteristic sign of labyrinthitis is:

92. Suppuration from the external auditory canal is typical for:

93. The central part of the auditory analyzer is located:

94. The flow of clear fluid from the external auditory canal is a sign of injury:

95. The element of the inner ear is:

96. The peripheral part of the vestibular analyzer is located:

97. Suppuration from the ear is a sign of:

98. Ear “stuffiness” after swimming is a sign of:

99. A characteristic sign of acute otitis media is:

100. A characteristic sign of labyrinthitis is:

101. Removal of a foreign body from the external auditory canal is carried out using:

102. Audiometry is a research method:

DERMATOVENEROLOGY

1. Primary morphological element:
2. Secondary morphological element:
3. Dark field microscopy is used to diagnose:
4. Keratolytic agent:
5. Between the epidermis and dermis is located:
6. Apocrine sweat glands are located in the area:
7. Sebaceous glands:
8. There are no sebaceous glands
9. Erosion is formed within:
10. The epidermis includes:
11. Skin appendages include:
12. Sweat glands have:
13. Ingredients of the cream:
14. The ratio of powder and fat-like substance in pastes:
15. Streptococcus causes:
16. Antibiotics are prescribed when the boil is localized:
17. Dermatophytoses include:
18. During mass preventive examinations to identify microsporia, the following is used:
19. The emergency notice is filled out:
20. Muff-like covers on the hair are present when:
21. Herpes simplex is characterized by:
22. Skeletal system in tertiary syphilis:
23. A set of instruments for instillation into the urethra in men:
24. Tactics of a health worker when identifying erosive and ulcerative rashes on the genitals
25. Herpes zoster is characterized by damage
26. Tertiary syphilis manifests itself as:
27. Your actions when identifying scabies in a team:
28. Sycosis is usually localized on the skin:
29. The skin has no function
30. Inflammatory spots include
31. The most common sites of localization for scabies in adults
32. Children with skin diseases should be isolated from children's institutions
33. Priority problem for scabies
34. The causative agent of scabies
35. A serious complication of urticaria
36. For etiotropic treatment of scabies it is used
37. The main route of infection with syphilis
38. Syphilis in Latin
39. Potential physiological problem in a patient with gonorrhea
40. The causative agent of gonorrhea
41. Basic drugs for the treatment of gonorrhea

OPHTHALMOLOGY

1. The thinnest wall of the orbit is:

2. The optic nerve canal serves to pass:

3. Eye development begins at:

4. Fluid outflow from the anterior chamber occurs through:

5. The vitreous body performs all functions:

6. The main function of the visual analyzer, without which all its other visual functions cannot develop, is:

7. For the first time, a table for determining visual acuity was compiled by:

8. If a person distinguishes from a distance of 1 meter only the first line of the table for determining visual acuity, then his visual acuity is equal to:

9. There is no light perception in a patient with:

10. In an adult, intraocular pressure should not normally exceed:

11. The bactericidal effect of tears is ensured by the presence in it of:

12. 1 diopter is taken to be the refractive power of an optical lens with a focal length of:

13. Changes in the eyelids due to inflammatory edema include:

14. Clinical signs of erysipelas include:

15. Scaly blepharitis is characterized by:

16. With adenoviral infection of the eye, the following is observed:

17. With orbital phlegmon the following is observed:

18. Primary benign tumors of the orbit include:

19. Indications for enucleation are:

20. The main symptom of eyelid emphysema:

21. With allergic dermatitis the following is observed:

22. Traumatic swelling of the eyelids is accompanied by:

23. Indications for opening an eyelid abscess are:

24. When the skin of the eyelids is affected by herpes simplex, the following is observed:

25. Miotics are prescribed for:

26. Local anesthetics are used for:

27. Vasodilators are prescribed for:

28. Absorbable agents are prescribed for:

29. Indications for the use of cauterizing and astringent agents are:

30. Visual acuity equal to

PHTHISIATRICS

1. The causative agent of tuberculosis is
2. In organs and tissues during tuberculosis it is formed
3. The most common route of transmission of tuberculosis
4. Early symptoms of tuberculosis
5. In tuberculosis, sputum can be found
6. Diet for tuberculosis involves
7. Method for early diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis
8. Specific prevention of tuberculosis
9. The BCG vaccine is
10. BCG vaccination is carried out
11. BCG vaccine is administered
12. Diaskin test is used for
13. Complication from pulmonary tuberculosis
14. Phases of the tuberculosis process accompanied by massive bacterial excretion
15. The development of tuberculosis is most facilitated by
16. The primary tuberculosis complex is formed by the following elements
17. People suffer from primary tuberculosis
18. Primary tuberculosis intoxication is characterized by fever
19. Physiological problems in primary tuberculosis include
20. The Diaskin test is carried out with the aim of
21. Diaskin test is administered
22. A Diaskin test is done if previous reactions are negative.
23. The most common tuberculosis of the respiratory system
24. Secondary tuberculosis develops
25. Fluorographic examination matters
26. Symptoms of secondary pulmonary tuberculosis
27. Social and everyday problems with tuberculosis
28. Physiological problems in secondary tuberculosis
29. A reliable sign of pulmonary hemorrhage
30. Dietary recommendations for a patient with tuberculosis
31. Type of mycobacteria that most often causes disease in humans
32. The main source of tuberculosis infection is
33. Transmission factors for the foodborne spread of tuberculosis
34. A characteristic complaint for various forms of tuberculosis
35. Methods for early diagnosis of tuberculosis
36. Specific drug for the prevention of tuberculosis
37. Medicines for the treatment of tuberculosis
38. Concentration of chloramine solution for sputum disinfection in pocket spittoons
39. A diet is recommended for patients with tuberculosis
40. For the purpose of chemoprophylaxis of tuberculosis, contact persons are prescribed
41. To prevent the neurotoxic effects of isoniazid, use
42. The Diaskin test is assessed through
43. To disinfect the sputum of a patient with pulmonary tuberculosis, use
44. Side effects of rifampicin
45. Concentration of chloramine solution for disinfection of medical instruments for tuberculosis
46. BCG vaccination develops immunity
47. Immunity formed by hardening
48. All balneological procedures are recommended for patients with tuberculosis, except
49. Work is contraindicated for patients with tuberculosis
50. The risk group for tuberculosis includes:
51. The most common site of extrapulmonary tuberculosis
52. Dose of Diaskin test for mass examination
53. Treatment of underwear of a patient with tuberculosis
54. The interval between BCG vaccination and any other preventive vaccination is at least
55. A disease that contributes to the development of tuberculosis
56. Dependent nursing intervention for pulmonary hemorrhage
57. Tactics of a nurse when a patient develops scarlet foamy blood when coughing outside a medical facility
58. A reliable method for diagnosing respiratory tuberculosis is detection in sputum
59. Side effects of streptomycin
60. Potential patient problem with pulmonary tuberculosis
61. Features of tuberculosis at the present stage
62. Resorts for the treatment of tuberculosis patients
63. Housing conditions in the focus of tuberculosis are assessed as satisfactory if the patient lives
64. The drainage position is given to the patient in order to
65. If a large amount of purulent sputum is produced in the patient's diet, it is recommended
66. X-ray examination of the bronchi using a contrast agent
67. With long-term use of antibiotics, the patient may develop
68. Pulmonary hemorrhage is characterized by sputum
69. A disease that can be complicated by pleurisy
70. The main symptom of dry pleurisy
71. Increased airiness of the lungs is
72. The main symptom of emphysema
73. Anatomical area of ​​BCG vaccine administration

GERIATRICS

1. Age-related changes in the respiratory system
2. Age-related changes in the upper respiratory tract
3. Chest in old age
4. Radiography of the bronchi in geriatric patients should be performed when they appear against the background of chronic bronchitis.
5. The most common complication of acute bronchitis in geriatric patients
6. Predisposes to the development of chronic bronchitis in the elderly
7. For exacerbation of chronic bronchitis, geriatric patients are recommended
8. When pneumonia occurs in geriatric patients, it is rarely observed
9. Predisposes to the development of pneumonia in elderly and senile people
10. The main complaint of an elderly patient with obstructive bronchitis
11. Most common cause of hemoptysis in geriatric patients
12. Emergency care for pulmonary hemorrhage
13. The expiratory nature of shortness of breath in old age is typical for
14. During an attack of bronchial asthma, it is contraindicated in geriatric patients.
15. Emergency care for an attack of bronchial asthma
16. Elderly patients with bronchial asthma need advice
17. The main complaint of an elderly patient with emphysema
18. After acute pneumonia, clinical observation is carried out for
19. Frequency of clinical examinations for chronic bronchitis during the year
20. The drainage function of the bronchi decreases with age as a result of
21. Exacerbation of chronic bronchitis in geriatric patients is accompanied by
22. The main cause of pneumonia in geriatric patients
23. The nature of sputum in chronic bronchitis
24. A characteristic sign of lung cancer in sputum examination
25. For the treatment of chronic pulmonary heart disease in geriatrics, it is used
26. Potential problem with pneumonia in geriatric patients
27. Independent nursing intervention for pulmonary hemorrhage
28. Rehabilitation for chronic bronchitis in the elderly involves
29. Acute respiratory failure is accompanied by
30. All types of aging include:
31. Biological age
32. Elderly people belong to the following age group
33. Centenarians include people aged
34. Geriatrics is a science that studies
35. Recommended ratio of proteins, fats and carbohydrates for elderly and senile people
36. To prevent early aging in the diet, you should limit
37. Mandatory equipment for the gerontology department
38. Anatomical and physiological features of the respiratory system in elderly and senile people
39. Anatomical and physiological features of the musculoskeletal system in elderly and senile people
40. Anatomical and physiological changes in the digestive system in elderly and senile people
41. One of the provisions of geriatric pharmacology
42. Elderly patients are prescribed medications based on
43. Typical physiological problem of elderly and senile people
44. Typical psychosocial problem of elderly and senile people
45. When caring for a geriatric patient, the nurse must first provide
46. Physical activity causes
47. The aging process is accompanied
48. In case of prolonged bed rest, it is necessary to carry out
49. Gerontophobia is
50. Risk factors for premature aging include
51. According to WHO classification, population groups at high risk of poor health include:
52. Leading need in old age
53. The presence of two or more diseases in a patient is
54. Age-related changes in the cardiovascular system
55. Weight of an old man's heart
56. In old age arteries
57. What rhythm is characteristic of the physiological type of aging?
58. The blood pressure level in atherosclerotic hypertension is characterized by
59. The leading cause of arterial hypertension in elderly and senile people
60. Hypertensive crisis begins in old people
61. Against the background of a hypertensive crisis, insufficiency often develops in elderly and senile people.
62. Therapy of hypertensive crisis in elderly people begins with the administration of the drug
63. For hypertensive crisis in elderly and senile people, it is used
64. An attack of angina in the elderly is caused by
65. An attack of angina in the elderly is characterized by
66. To relieve an attack of angina, it is advisable to use
67. Used to treat angina in old age
68. Anti-sclerotic nutrition for the elderly involves the use of
69. Doses of medications used to treat coronary artery disease in the elderly should be
70. The reason for the decrease in pain intensity during myocardial infarction in elderly and senile people
71. A form of myocardial infarction that is less common in old age
72. Administration of morphine hydrochloride in the elderly is not advisable because
73. The initial signs of heart failure in the elderly are
74. Used to treat heart failure in the elderly
75. Signs of glycoside intoxication in the elderly
76. It is advisable to prescribe cardiac glycosides in the elderly
77. Glycoside intoxication in the elderly is facilitated by
78. Changes in the intestinal microflora lead to
79. In old age, what happens in the stomach:
80. How many times a day should older people eat:
81. The intervals between meals in the elderly should be:
82. Ulcerative defect in geriatric patients is more often localized in:
83. In the occurrence of peptic ulcer in the elderly, the following is of greatest importance:
84. "Senile" ulcers are characterized by:
85. Contraindications to the use of anticholinergics are:
86. The patient is 73 years old. He is in the hospital for a stomach ulcer. Constantly complains of heartburn. Considering this, what antacid should be prescribed:
87. Physiotherapy for peptic ulcers in old age:
88. Chronic cholecystitis manifests itself
89. Stomach cancer manifests itself
90. Chronic persistent hepatitis manifests itself
91. Spa treatment for geriatric patients should be carried out at resorts:
92. Constipation in older people is often caused by:
93. The fiber that older people need is found in:
94. In geriatric patients, it is better to use antacids:
95. Glaucoma is a contraindication for the use of:
96. With hepatic colic in old age, the pain is localized in:
97. Emergency care for hepatic colic in geriatric patients:
98. To suppress pancreatic secretion you can use:
99. Possible complications of pancreatitis:
100. Age-related changes during aging
101. Urinary retention in elderly and senile people is usually associated with
102. Disorders of urodynamics in the elderly and the elderly contribute to
103. The priority problem for prostate adenoma in elderly and senile people
104. With prostate adenoma, the likelihood of developing
105. Priority action of the nurse for urinary incontinence in elderly and senile people
106. Urinary stones consisting primarily of oxalic acid salts are called
107. Urates are called urinary stones consisting primarily of salts.
108. Which type of onset of urolithiasis is more common in geriatric patients
109. Dairy products (except for a limited number of fermented milk products) should be excluded from the diet; meat, fish, and vegetable oils should be recommended to a patient whose urinary stones consist of
110. Tea, chocolate, rhubarb, spinach, gooseberries should be excluded from the diet, the consumption of tomatoes and potatoes should be limited, dairy products and black bread should be recommended if urinary stones consist of
111. Meat products, fish, alcohol should be excluded from food, dairy products, vegetables and fruits should be recommended to a patient whose urinary stones consist of
112. During an attack of renal colic in an elderly patient, a number of procedures can be performed, except
113. Features of the onset of acute pyelonephritis in elderly and senile age
114. What changes in urine most indicate acute pyelonephritis in old age?
115. Symptomatic hypertension is more common in
116. The most common causative agents of pyelonephritis in the elderly and senile age
117. Predisposing factors for the occurrence of pyelonephritis in old age may be
118. Complications of exacerbation of chronic pyelonephritis in old age are
119. Clinically, chronic pyelonephritis in elderly and senile age manifests itself
120. Diabetes mellitus in geriatric patients is caused by:
121. The course of diabetes mellitus in elderly and senile people is aggravated by:
122. Obese people develop diabetes:
123. Which symptom of obesity in old age is more serious in prognostic terms:
124. A 62-year-old man has a height of 174 cm and a body weight of 80 kg:
125. For obesity, the following diet is prescribed:
126. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type I diabetes) most often develops:
127. Non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type II diabetes) often develops:
128. With diabetes mellitus in old age, a disorder develops:
129. Diet therapy is prescribed:
130. The main criterion for the effectiveness of diet therapy for diabetes mellitus in old age is:
131. Patients with diabetes mellitus are prescribed:
132. In case of hypoglycemic coma in elderly and old people, the skin:
133. In case of hyperglycemic coma in elderly and old people, the skin:
134. During hypoglycemic coma, the following odor is noted in the exhaled air:
135. With hyperglycemic coma, the following odor is noted in the exhaled air:
136. For the treatment of type II diabetes mellitus, the following is used:
137. For diabetes mellitus, the following diet is prescribed:
138. Emergency care for hypoglycemic conditions in old age:
139. With diffuse toxic goiter the following is observed:
140. Damage to the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints is observed with
141. Morning stiffness of joints in old age is observed with
142. Deformation of the hand of the “walrus fin” type is observed when
143. In rheumatoid arthritis in old age, the most typical blood test is
144. Important in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is
145. Used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
146. In deforming osteoarthritis, pain syndrome is associated with
147. Joint pain with deforming osteoarthritis in old age is observed
148. In deforming osteoarthritis, the first areas affected are
149. Used in the treatment of deforming osteoarthritis
150. Side effects when prescribed NSAIDs
151. Lead to the development of osteoporosis in old age
152. Main clinical manifestations of osteoporosis
153. Main source of vitamin D for osteoporosis
154. Used to treat osteoporosis
155. Weakness, fainting, perversion of taste and smell in old age are observed with anemia:
156. The clinical picture of iron deficiency anemia in the elderly is dominated by:
157. Iron deficiency anemia in the elderly according to color index:
158. The most iron is found in:
159. When treating iron deficiency anemia, iron supplements in old age should begin to be administered:
160. Reason for reduced effectiveness of oral iron supplements in geriatric patients:
161. It is better to take iron supplements with:
162. Iron preparation for parenteral use:
163. When treating iron deficiency anemia in old age, the following is used:
164. The effectiveness of treatment with iron supplements is indicated by the appearance in the blood of:
165. At 12, deficiency anemia develops when:
166. Clinic of B 12 deficiency anemia:
167. B12 deficiency anemia by color index:
168. When treating B12-deficiency anemia in old age, the following is used:
169. The main cause of acute leukemia in geriatric patients is:
170. Sternal puncture in geriatric patients is performed to diagnose:
171. With leukemia, the following syndromes are observed:
172. A leukemic “failure” in a blood test in geriatric patients is observed when:
173. With chronic lymphocytic leukemia there is an increase in:
174. When treating leukemia in old age, the following is used:
175. The clinical picture of erythremia in geriatric patients consists of the following syndromes:

OBSTETRICS

1. The internal genital organs include:

2. The menstrual cycle is:

3. Timely birth is birth at term:

4. One of the main symptoms of late gestosis is:

5. The priority problem for a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is:

6. The priority problem of a pregnant woman with a miscarriage is:

8. Physiological duration of pregnancy:

9. Deadline for issuing prenatal leave:

10. Duration of prenatal and postnatal leave (in the absence of complications):

11. Possible signs of pregnancy include:

12. With Snegirev's symptom the following is observed:

13. Bulging of the angle of the uterus, detected during vaginal bimanual examination, is called:

14. With the Horwitz-Hegar symptom, the following occurs:

15. Hospitalization in the observation department of a maternity hospital is indicated if a woman in labor has:

16. The deepest vault of the vagina is:

17. Non-sterile gloves can be used in the maternity hospital:

18. According to indications, the pregnant woman is examined by:

19. In a physiologically progressing pregnancy, the pregnant woman visits a dentist:

20. The fusion of sex cells between a man and a woman is called:

21. Most often, an ectopic pregnancy develops in:

22. The thickness of the pelvic bones is determined using:

23. The vertical dimension of the Michaelis rhombus is equal to the size

24. Termination of pregnancy at the request of the woman is carried out at:

25. For bicornuate and saddle uterus:

26. The relationship of the fetal limbs and head to its body is called:

27. Before applying the Rogovin brace, the umbilical cord is processed:

28. The filling of shared rooms in the postpartum department occurs:

29. The distance between the upper edge of the pubic symphysis and the upper angle of the Michaelis rhombus is called:

30. The normal vaginal environment is:

31. Obstetric hospitals that include intensive care wards for women and newborns are classified as hospitals:

32. Symptoms of cervical cancer in the early stages:

33. Cytological examination for atypical cells is carried out for:

34. Hysterosalpingography is performed for the following purposes:

35. Before performing an ultrasound examination of the pelvic organs:

36. Before performing a bimanual vaginal examination, you must:

37. Before performing laparoscopic surgery on the pelvic organs:

38. Inflammation of the large gland of the vaginal vestibule is called:

39. The nature of discharge during candidiasis:

40. Women after childbirth that occurred outside a medical institution are hospitalized in:

41. The uterus takes on an hourglass shape:

42. The triad of symptoms of late gestosis (OPG-gestosis) includes:

43. The relationship of the large part of the fetus to the entrance to the pelvis is called:

44. The principles of organizing obstetric and gynecological care are determined by order of the Russian Ministry of Health:

45. Issues of organizing infectious safety in an obstetric hospital are defined by the following regulatory document

46. He was the first to propose the use of methods for the prevention of nosocomial infections in obstetrics:

47. Medical staff of maternity hospitals must undergo fluorographic examination:

48. To treat the surgical field and external genitalia of a woman in labor before delivery, you can use:

49. Upon admission to the gynecological department of the maternity hospital, the patient:

50. Cohabitation of a postpartum mother with a child:

51. In the postpartum physiological department, bed linen for postpartum women is changed:

52. To prevent gonoblennorrhea in a newborn, the following is used:

53. A diagnostic pregnancy test (urinalysis) is based on determining:

54. Lengthening the outer segment of the umbilical cord by 8-10 cm is called a sign of separation of the placenta:

55. A pregnant woman with a narrow pelvis should be hospitalized in a maternity hospital:

56. The second stage of labor is called the period:

57. In the postpartum department, the guard nurse:

58. If there are positive signs of placenta separation and physiological blood loss, you must:

59. The first degree of vaginal cleanliness is characterized by:

60. The external os of a nulliparous woman has the shape:

61. The distance between the lower edge of the symphysis and the most prominent point of the promontory, measured during vaginal examination, is called the conjugate:

62. The distance between the most distant points of the trochanters of the femur is called:

63. To determine the estimated fetal weight using the Jordania method, you must:

64. When the fetus is in cephalic presentation, the heartbeat can be heard:

65. The ratio of the longitudinal axis of the fetal body to the longitudinal axis of the mother's body is called:

66. After a normal birth, the mother in labor is under observation in the maternity ward:

67. The set of movements that the fetus makes as it passes through the pelvis and birth canal is called:

68. It is most rational to cross the umbilical cord during uncomplicated childbirth:

69. Putting a baby to the mother's breast in the absence of complications is rational:

70. A mild form of early gestosis in pregnant women is characterized by:

71. Nausea is a sign of pregnancy:

72. Progesterone during pregnancy, in addition to the ovaries, is also produced by:

73. Risk of Rh conflict between mother and fetus:

74. A woman’s blood is monitored for Rh antibodies if there is a risk of Rh conflict:

75. The next clinical stage of miscarriage after a threatening one:

76. With complete uterine rupture:

77. The presence of a patient's history of two or more consecutive spontaneous miscarriages (abortions) is called:

78. If the size of the fetal head does not correspond to the size of the mother’s pelvis, the diagnosis is made:

79. The fetal heartbeat in the second stage of labor is listened to:

80. Main functions of the placenta:

81. Abdominal circumference in pregnant women is measured:

82. With the help of the third external obstetric examination according to Leopold, the following is determined:

83. Primiparous and multiparous women begin to feel fetal movement according to:

84. Contractions are muscle contractions.

001. Joana is:

a) posterior sections of the upper nasal meatus

b) opening from the nasal cavity to the nasopharynx

c) posterior parts of the lower nasal meatus

d) posterior sections of the common nasal meatus

Correct answer: b

002.The outflow of blood from the external nose occurs in:

a) ophthalmic vein

b) anterior facial vein

c) thyroid vein

d) lingual vein

Correct answer: b

003. Glabella is:

a) a point above the anterior nasal axis

b) zone of transition of the root of the nose to the level of the eyebrows

c) area of ​​the back of the nose

d) area of ​​the anterior protruding part of the chin

Correct answer: b

004. The vomer is part of the wall of the nasal cavity:

a) top

b) bottom

c) lateral

d) medial

Correct answer: g

005. Thickness of the perforated plate of the ethmoid bone:

b) 2 – 3 mm

c) 4 – 5 mm

d) 5 – 6 mm

Correct answer: b

006. The turbinates are located on the wall of the nasal cavity:

a) top

b) bottom

c) lateral

d) medial

Correct answer: in

007. The composition of the outer wall of the nasal cavity includes:

a) nasal bone

b) frontal, parietal bones

c) main bone

d) palatine bone

Correct answer: a

008. The upper wall of the nasal cavity does not include:

a) frontal bone

b) palatine bone

c) nasal bone

d) main bone

Correct answer: b

009. In the nasal cavity there are turbinates:

a) top, bottom, middle

b) upper, lower, lateral

c) only upper, lower

d) medial, lateral

Correct answer: a

010. With anterior rhinoscopy you can more often examine:

a) only the inferior turbinate

b) only the middle turbinate

c) superior nasal concha

d) inferior and middle turbinates

Correct answer: g

011. The vestigial Jacobson's organ in the nasal cavity is located:

a) on the bottom wall

b) on the nasal septum

c) in the middle turbinate

d) in the middle meatus

Correct answer: b

012. The newborn has:

a) two nasal turbinates

b) three nasal turbinates

c) four nasal turbinates

d) five turbinates

Correct answer: in

013. The nasolacrimal duct opens:

a) in the upper nasal passage

b) middle nasal meatus

c) lower nasal passage

d) common nasal passage

Correct answer: in

014. The middle meatus opens:

a) all paranasal sinuses

b) nasolacrimal duct

c) anterior sinuses

d) posterior cells of the ethmoidal labyrinth

Correct answer: in

015. Open into the upper nasal passage:

a) frontal sinus

b) posterior ethmoid cells, main sinus

c) all cells of the ethmoid labyrinth

d) nasolacrimal duct

Correct answer: b

016. Kisselbach's area in the nasal cavity is located:

a) in the anterior inferior part of the nasal septum

b) in the upper part of the nasal septum

c) in the mucous membrane of the inferior nasal concha

d) in the mucous membrane of the middle turbinate

Correct answer: a

017. The lower nasal passage opens:

a) maxillary sinus

b) frontal sinus

c) posterior cells of the ethmoidal labyrinth

d) nasolacrimal duct

Correct answer: g

018. The main role in warming the air in the nasal cavity is played by:

a) bone tissue

b) cartilage tissue

c) cavernous tissue

d) mucous glands

Correct answer: in

019. A feature of the structure of the nasal mucosa is:

a) the presence of goblet cells

b) the presence of mucous glands

c) the presence of cavernous plexuses in the submucosal layer

d) the presence of ciliated epithelium

Correct answer: in

020. Upper resonators do not include:

a) nose and sinuses

b) pharynx and vestibule of the larynx

c) subglottic space of the larynx

d) cranial cavity

Correct answer: in

021. Molecules of odorous substances are called:

a) opsonins

b) odorivectors

c) endoporphyrins

d) otoconia

Correct answer: b

022. Diaphanoscopy is:

a) identifying areas of different temperatures

b) X-ray method of examination

c) transillumination of the nasal sinuses with an electric light bulb

d) ultrasound examination

Correct answer: in

023. The main functions of the nose do not include:

a) respiratory

b) taste

c) olfactory

d) protective

Correct answer: b

024. Nasal breathing in newborns is mainly carried out through:

a) upper nasal passage

b) middle nasal meatus

c) lower nasal passage

d) common nasal passage

Correct answer: g

025. The main flow of inhaled air in the nasal cavity passes through the nasal passage:

a) top

b) average

c) lower

Correct answer: g

026. Parosmia is:

a) decreased sense of smell

b) lack of smell

c) perverted sense of smell

d) olfactory hallucinations

Correct answer: in

027. Kakosmia is:

a) decreased sense of smell

b) lack of smell

c) perverted sense of smell

d) feeling of a bad odor

Correct answer: g

028. The nose and its paranasal sinuses supply blood to:

a) system of external and internal carotid arteries

b) vertebral artery system

c) lingual artery system

d) superior thyroid artery

Correct answer: a

029. Lymph from the anterior parts of the nasal cavity is drained to the lymph nodes:

a) in the retropharyngeal lymph nodes

b) into the submandibular lymph nodes

c) to the anterior cervical lymph nodes

d) into the deep cervical lymph nodes

Correct answer: b

030. Motor innervation of the nasal muscles is carried out:

a) lingual nerve

b) trigeminal nerve

c) facial nerve

d) vagus nerve

Correct answer: in

031. The lower respiratory tract includes:

a) larynx

c) paranasal sinuses

d) bronchi

Correct answer: g

032. The transport function in the nasal cavity is performed by the epithelium:

a) olfactory

b) multilayer flat

c) cubic

d) flickering

Correct answer: g

033. Nerve fibers pass through the perforated plate of the ethmoid bone:

a) wandering

b) olfactory

c) 1st branch of the trigeminal

d) 2 branches of the trigeminal

Correct answer: b

034. In humans, olfactory sensitivity increases with:

a) traumatic brain injury

b) tumors of the frontal lobe of the brain

c) epidural hematoma

d) Addison's disease

Correct answer: g

035. The ostiomeatal complex does not include:

a) anterior end of the middle turbinate

b) nasal septum

c) uncinate process and semilunar fissure

d) ethmoid bladder

Correct answer: b

036. The main function of the nasal septum:

a) resonator

b) protective

c) division of the nasal cavity into two halves

d) olfactory

Correct answer: in

037. The most active mucociliary transport in the mucous membrane of the nasal cavity occurs on:

a) superior nasal concha

b) middle turbinate

c) inferior nasal concha

d) nasal septum

Correct answer: in

038. In the proper layer of the inferior turbinates there are:

a) arterial plexuses

b) cavernous venous plexuses

c) vascular capillary formations

d) mixed choroid plexuses

Correct answer: b

039. The cavernous venous plexus in the nasal cavity performs the function of:

a) respiratory

b) heater

c) transport

Which ENT organ is most often affected by malignant tumors?
Answer: Larynx

101. Note the order in which ear symptoms appear in case of chemodectoma of the middle ear.
Answer: Noise, decreased hearing, hyperemia and protrusion of the eardrum, ear canal polyp, bleeding

102. What is simulation
Answer: Exaggeration of existing disease

103. On which wall of the tympanic cavity is the gap between the squamous and petrous parts of the temporal bone located?
Answer: on the top.

104. What anatomical structures are not part of the middle ear?
Answer: organ of Corti.

105. What shape does the eardrum have in an adult?
Answer: oval.

106. What covers the oval window?
Answer: foot plate of the stirrup.

107. What is the thickest wall of the frontal sinus?
Answer: front

108. Venous blood from the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses flows into:
Answer: system of the anterior facial and orbital veins.

109. The upper wall of the nasal cavity is formed by:
Answer: cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone.

110. In which direction will the nystagmus be directed when the left labyrinth is stimulated by hot calorification:
Answer: The fast component of nystagmus is directed to the left.

111. Secondary neurons of the vestibular apparatus connect to:
Answer: nuclei of the oculomotor nerves, vagus nerve, cerebellum, anterior horns of the spinal cord, cerebral cortex.

112. On the medial wall of the tympanic cavity are:
Answer: vestibule and ampulla of the horizontal semicircular canal.

113. The boundaries of the lateral parapharyngeal space are not:
Answer: sternomastoid muscle.

114. The following formations pass along the lateral parapharyngeal space, except:
Answer: sternomastoid muscle.

115. Peritonsillar tissue is -
Answer: Fiber of the palatine tonsil.

116. The pharynx is innervated by the following branches except:
Answer: trigeminal

117. Reactive deviations of the muscles of the trunk and limbs are directed to:
Answer: towards the slow component of nystagmus.

118. To identify nystagmus, the patient’s gaze is fixed towards the nystagmus component:
Answer: fast.

119. Optokinetic nystagmus occurs due to:
Answer: visual irritation from moving objects.

120. In which coil of the cochlea are low-pitched sounds perceived?
Answer: in the top.

121. What is the name of the experiment in a comparative tuning fork study of hearing from the mastoid process and the tragus of the auricle?
Answer: Lewis-Federici experiment.

122. It is not typical for an abscess of the frontal lobe of the brain:
Answer: ataxia.

123. Rhinogenic complications of cavernous sinus thrombosis:
Answer: disturbance of consciousness.

124. Retropharyngeal abscess most often occurs in:
Answer: no dependence on age.

125. For what ear diseases does a Carhart wave appear on the audiogram?
Answer: +For otosclerosis

126. It is contraindicated for a patient with hypertension to soak tampons during nosebleeds:
Answer: Ephedrine solution.

127. What is the nature of dizziness in Meniere's disease?
Answer: systemic.

128. What symbol does T correspond to if a patient’s primary tumor affects 2 anatomical parts of any ENT organ?
Answer: T2

129. How pronounced is the air-bone gap on the audiogram in occupational hearing loss?
Answer: available for mid frequencies.

130. What are the most common causes of local nosebleeds?
Answer: injuries, foreign bodies, nasal tumors, atrophic processes.

131. For profuse nosebleeds use:
Answer: anterior and posterior tamponade.

132. How many times is the area of ​​the tympanic membrane greater than the area of ​​the footplate of the stapes?
Answer: 17 times

133. What is the average speaking strength?
Answer: 60db

134. An experiment in a comparative study of air and bone conduction is called:
Answer: Rinne

135. It is not typical for otogenic meningitis:
Answer: + bradycardia.

136. The following local symptoms are not observed with cavernous sinus thrombosis:
Answer: facial nerve paresis.

137. It is not typical for otogenic brain abscess:
Answer: tachycardia.

138. Which sinus is affected first in otogenic sinus thrombosis?
Answer: sigmoid.

139. Most often, labyrinthitis occurs:
Answer: with epitympanitis.

140. Intracranial complications mainly develop in diseases:
Answer: middle ear

141. Where does pus accumulate in an extradural abscess?
Answer: between the dura mater and bone

142. To what formations can a thrombus from the sigmoid sinus spread in the cranial direction?
Answer: to the cavernous sinus

143. The function of which cranial nerves can be impaired with an abscess of the frontal lobe in an obvious stage
Answer: oculomotor

144. Foreign bodies in the nasal cavity must be removed
Answer: blunt hook

145. Difficulty in nasal breathing is a symptom of the following diseases, except:
Answer: perforation of the nasal septum in the cartilaginous region

146. How much fluid does the mucous membranes of the nose and sinuses secrete per day in a healthy person?
Answer: 5000 ml

147. With injury to which wall of the nose and paranasal sinuses does nasal liquorrhea develop?
Answer: cribriform plate and posterior wall of the frontal sinus

148. The otolith apparatus receptor is located in:
Answer: sacs in the vestibule of the labyrinth

149. The membranous labyrinth is filled with:
Answer: endolymph

150. In case of chronic purulent epitympanitis with suppurating cholesteatoma, the following is routinely indicated:
Answer: surgical treatment is ok - planned scanning radical surgery with antibiotic therapy

151. Patient K., 23 years old, complains of nasal congestion, hearing loss,
noise in ears. She had a history of acute respiratory viral infection about a week ago. Upon inspection:
AD -AS Mt slightly pink, vascular injection along the handle of the malleus.
ShR -4m, the nasal mucosa is hyperemic, swollen, the discharge is mucopurulent in nature.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: 2-sided tubotympanitis

152. A patient consulted an otorhinolaryngologist with complaints of severe itching in the ears, periodically turning into a feeling of pain. There is a history of exacerbation in the form of external diffuse otitis several times. During otoscopy: AD -AS - the auditory canals are filled with plates of dry epidermis, in places peeling off in the form of casts. After their removal, Mt- gray on both sides without identifying marks, slightly covered with “fluff”.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Fungal external otitis

153. Patient G. consulted a doctor with complaints of a feeling of stuffiness in the left ear, decreased hearing, tinnitus (low-frequency), a feeling of fluid transfusion in the ear, and autophony. On otoscopy: AD -AS - ear canals - free, Mt - gray on the left, slightly bulging. ShR- 3m. Mt - gray on the right. Rhinoscopy: The nasal mucosa is somewhat subatrophic, the nasal septum is curved to the right, in the form of a ridge at the level of the lower nasal passage.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Mucosal otitis media

154. The patient consulted a doctor complaining of severe pain in her right ear. From the anamnesis, she became acutely ill after suffering an acute respiratory infection. Ear pain appeared at night and suddenly radiated to the throat and head. The pain in my ear was unbearable. On otoscopy: AD -AS - ear canals are free, Mt - on the left is gray, Mt - on the right is bulging, there are no identifying points, the eardrum is sharply hyperemic. Rhinoscopy: The nasal mucosa is moderately swollen, mucopurulent discharge in the common nasal passage.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Acute otitis media

155. The patient came to the emergency room complaining of severe pain in the ear. Considers himself sick within 3 days after the onset of ARVI symptoms. On otoscopy: AS - ear canal - free, Mt - gray on the left, AD - ear canal is narrowed in the bony part due to a bulging bullous formation filled with hemorrhagic contents, localized on the posterior wall of the ear canal with transition to the eardrum.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Bullous otitis media

156. The patient complains of severe pain in the ear on the left, radiating to the temporal and parietal region, aggravated by chewing, and an increase in temperature to 37.7? C. During otoscopy: AS - in the ear canal - a cone-shaped elevation is determined on the anterior wall, the skin on its surface is hyperemic. In the center of the formation there is a purulent head, the lumen of the auditory canal is narrowed and Mt is immense. An enlarged lymph node is palpated in front of the auricle.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Furuncle of the anterior wall of the external auditory canal.

157. The patient complains of ear pain and mucopurulent discharge.
He does not notice any hearing loss. The condition and health are satisfactory, the temperature is subfebrile. The illness started about a week ago. The onset of the disease is associated with traumatic removal of sulfur deposits (hairpin). I treated myself at home, but without effect. Otoscopy: AD-AS - the lumens of the auditory canals are narrowed, filled with mucopurulent discharge, after using the toilet it was only possible to insert a narrow funnel. Mt - on the right - gray, cloudy, on the left - slightly pink.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: 2-sided external diffuse otitis

158. The patient complains of severe pain in the right ear, radiating to the temple, ear congestion, headache, and fever up to 38 degrees. From the anamnesis - she was sick for 2 days. The onset of the disease is associated with a runny nose. Otoscopy: AD - the auditory canal is free, the skin is not changed, Mt is hyperemic, infiltrated, bulging, there are no identifying points. Hearing in the right ear is reduced SR-2m, lateralization of sound in Weber's experiment to the right.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Right-sided acute otitis media

159. The patient complains of pain in the right ear, suppuration, headache, and hearing loss. For acute purulent otitis, he was treated on an outpatient basis, but without effect, suppuration continued. Two days ago, pain appeared in the area behind the ear, body temperature increased to 37.5 degrees, and the amount of purulent discharge from the ear increased. Objectively: AD - swelling is detected in the postauricular area, the postauricular fold is smoothed. Percussion reveals pain in the projection area of ​​the mastoid process. The ear canal is filled with liquid pus; after using the toilet, perforation Mt- is detected in the tense part, and pus quickly accumulates. In the bony part, the auditory canal is narrowed due to the overhang of the posterior-superior wall. ShR-2m on the right.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Acute moderate right-sided perforated purulent otitis, complicated by mastoiditis.

160. A 35-year-old patient was admitted to the ENT clinic with complaints of severe dizziness (a feeling of objects rotating to the left), nausea, vomiting, ringing in the left ear, and balance disorders. The patient had a history of similar attacks over the past five years. At the beginning, the attacks were short-lived and short-lived, gradually they became more frequent and more pronounced. Hearing has decreased. This attack began suddenly and for no apparent reason. AD and AS without visible pathology, spontaneous horizontal nystagmus of the second degree to the left, deviation of both hands when performing a pointing test.
ShR-left 1.5m, ShRright-5m
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Meniere's disease

161. A 29-year-old patient complains of tinnitus and hearing loss. Five years ago, after giving birth, I first noticed hearing loss, which gradually progressed. Notes that he hears better in noisy environments. No visible pathology was detected from the ENT organs. The auditory canals are wide, without sulfur deposits, Mt-gray, pale, thinned. Sound perception is reduced in both ears. When performing pure tone threshold audiometry, bone conduction thresholds were within normal limits, air thresholds increased by 35-45 dB. Jelly's experience is negative. No vestibular disorders were identified.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Otosclerosis tympanic form

162. A 45-year-old patient came to the audiology office with complaints of hearing loss over the past year. From the anamnesis it was revealed that she had previously suffered from pyelonephritis, for which she received an intensive course of antibiotic therapy. During the treatment, I noticed the appearance of ringing in the ears and deterioration of hearing. I remembered that I noticed dizziness and unsteadiness in my gait. Upon examination, no visible pathology from the ENT organs was detected. Otoscopy: AD -AS- without features. When examining hearing, pure-tone audiometry showed an increase in bone thresholds by 20-40 dB in a descending manner. Air thresholds increased parallel to bone thresholds, without bone-air or cochlear reserve. Depression of the function of both labyrinths was revealed.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Sensorineural hearing loss I degree

163. A patient was brought to the ENT clinic by ambulance with complaints of headache, a rise in body temperature to 39-40? C, fever, accompanied by hectic temperature changes. From the anamnesis it was revealed that the patient had been suffering from chronic otitis media since childhood. He was repeatedly offered a sanitizing operation, which he did not agree to. Upon examination, the left auditory canal was filled with pus; after using the toilet, a polyp was identified, obstructing the auditory canal, emanating from the posterosuperior quadrant of Mt. Swelling and pain are detected upon palpation of soft tissue along the posterior edge of the mastoid process. X-rays of the temporal bone show destructive changes in the mastoid process, destruction of cells and signs of cavity formation.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic epitympanitis, complicated by polyp and thrombosis of the sigmoid sinus.

164. A 25-year-old patient came to the emergency department of an ENT hospital with complaints of sore throat, hyperthermia, and weakness. According to the patient, he fell ill acutely and associates the onset of the disease with taking a cold drink. History: frequent sore throats. Pharyngoscopy: the pharynx is asymmetrical, infiltration of the posterior velopharyngeal arch is pronounced, the tonsil on the left is displaced medially and anteriorly.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Posterior paratonsillitis on the left

165. A 25-year-old patient consulted a doctor for frequent sore throats, low-grade fibrility, and recurrent arthralgia. When examined in the pharynx: the tonsils are scarred, fused to the arches, not mobile during rotation, the anterior palatine arches are infiltrated, hyperemic, there are caseous plugs in the lacunae. Enlarged lymph nodes are palpated in the maxillary region.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Chronic tonsillitis is a decompensated form.

166. The patient turned to the ENT doctor of the clinic with complaints of: periodic nasal congestion, which appeared after a nasal injury. The patient presented quite characteristic complaints: if he lay on his right side, the right half of his nose was blocked, if he lay on his left side, then the left half of his nose was blocked. Rhinoscopy: the nasal septum is curved to the right, the nasal passage on the right is narrowed, the inferior turbinates are moderately hypertrophied, the nasal mucosa is pale pink.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Vasomotor rhinitis, deviated nasal septum.

167. The patient turned to the ENT doctor of the clinic with complaints of weakness, discomfort, nasal congestion and sneezing attacks. On examination: the nasal mucosa is pale with a gray tint, the discharge is serous, copious and watery. According to the patient, this condition has been observed at the same time of year for the last three years. Moreover, the process becomes longer and more difficult every year.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Seasonal atopic rhinitis.

168. The patient turned to the ENT doctor of the clinic with complaints of: copious serous discharge, sneezing attacks and difficulty in nasal breathing. On examination: The nasal mucosa is pale with a bluish or grayish tint, light spots are visible on the surface of the inferior nasal turbinates, the turbinates are hypertrophied and of pasty density. Anemization of the mucous membrane did not lead to a noticeable reduction in the nasal turbinates and provoked an attack of sneezing. According to the patient, sneezing attacks are provoked by: house dust, animal hair, aquarium fish food.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Year-round allergic rhinitis.

169. The patient complained of nasal congestion. He had a history of acute respiratory viral infection. He treated himself. I used Sanorin drops, but there was no improvement. Nasal breathing was not restored. Lately, only naphthyzine has helped. During anterior rhinoscopy, the turbinates are hypertrophied, the mucous membrane is hyperemic, bright red, and there is no pathological discharge.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Drug-induced rhinitis

170. The patient consulted an ENT doctor with complaints of difficulty breathing through the nose and weakness. A detailed examination revealed preserved breathing on the right, complete absence of breathing on the left and difficulty breathing on the right. The nasal mucosa is pale pink, in the left half of the nose there is purulent discharge in the common nasal passage.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Choanal nasal polyp

171. The patient came to the ENT hospital with complaints of difficulty in nasal breathing and weakness. Anterior rhinoscopy revealed pale gray mobile formations and purulent discharge in the common nasal passage.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Polypous rhinosinusitis

172. A 17-year-old patient came to the ENT hospital for recurrent nosebleeds. Upon examination, a curvature of the nasal septum to the right was revealed, but nasal breathing was difficult on both sides. Indirect rhinoscopy revealed a rounded formation filling the upper part of the nasopharynx with a red-brown color.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Juvenile angiofibroma

173. A patient came to the hospital with complaints of difficulty in nasal breathing, more on the right side, and periodically noted dryness and scanty mucous discharge, which recently became purulent mixed with blood. During anterior rhinoscopy: the nasal cavity is lined with purulent-bloody crusts, which are removed in the form of an impression. The nasal mucosa is thinned, red-bluish in color, and there are bleeding granulations in some areas. A perforation is detected in the cartilaginous part of the nasal septum.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Wegener's granulomatosis

174. A high school student received an ear injury - a blow to the auricle with an open palm. Immediately after the injury, the patient felt severe pain in the ear, noise, short-term dizziness, but did not lose consciousness. On otoscopy: the ear canal is free and the area is hyperemic with areas of hemorrhage.
Determine the nature of the ear injury.
Answer: Barotrauma

175. A patient suffering from laryngeal cancer was brought to the emergency room with symptoms of stenosis. A tracheostomy was performed for health reasons. The trachea is opened transversely between the third and fourth rings. A metal tracheostomy tube No. 5 was installed. When examined the next day, the patient developed a cough and a small amount of liquid food in the wound.
What technical error occurred during tracheostomy?
Answer: Damage to the wall of the esophagus

176. A 36-year-old patient consulted an ENT doctor with complaints of pain in the throat after prolonged vocal strain. According to the patient, she always had a low voice, with a soft hoarseness. Breathing is free, no signs of acute inflammation from the upper respiratory tract were noted. Upon examination, the anterior surface of the neck is not changed; during phonation, tension in the external muscles of the larynx and neck is noted. The pharynx is calm, the mouth opens freely. With indirect laryngoscopy, the epiglottis is mobile, the glottis is free, and the true vocal folds are free. During phonation, pronounced mobility of the vestibular folds is revealed, without their complete closure.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Hypertonic phonosthenia

177. A 48-year-old patient, a long-time smoker, consulted a doctor for hoarseness of voice and attacks of suffocation at night. He was treated for chronic laryngitis, but there was no improvement. Recently, shortness of breath has appeared when walking quickly, and attacks of suffocation have intensified at night. On examination, the pharynx is calm, opening the mouth is not difficult. With indirect laryngoscopy, the epiglottis is mobile, the pyriform sinuses are free, the vestibular part of the larynx is without pathology. The true vocal folds on the right are hyperemic and mobile, the left pale one is limited in mobility, its edge is not smooth. A lumpy gray infiltrate is visible in the subglottic space. Tomography of the larynx reveals asymmetry of the subglottic space due to a dense shadow with uneven edges from the true vocal fold on the left to the cricoid cartilage.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Tumor of the subglottic space

178. The patient came to the emergency room of the ENT hospital with complaints of purulence from the ear, fetid in nature, and moderate pain in the ear. In addition, the patient complained of general weakness, malaise, and an increase in body temperature to 38? C. She has been ill since childhood and has periodic exacerbations. Upon examination, the area of ​​the mastoid process is painless upon palpation and percussion, and is not visually changed. There is purulent discharge in the ear canal with an unpleasant odor. In the anterior superior quadrant of the tympanic membrane there is a marginal perforation through which granulations bulge and bleed when touched with a Vojacek probe. The stretched part of the tympanic membrane is preserved, the membrane is moderately hyperemic and injected. Hearing is reduced, but whispered speech of 4 meters is preserved.
Make a diagnosis.
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic epitympanitis, complicated by granulations.

179. The patient was brought to the department by ambulance in serious condition; he had difficulty answering questions and was inhibited. He complains of suppuration from the left ear and moderate pain. Notes severe headache. Body temperature 38.5? C. From the anamnesis it was revealed that suppuration from the ear has been observed since childhood, otitis media developed after measles. This exacerbation of otitis developed after suffering from a cold. Not treated. The day before, a severe headache appeared, the body temperature increased, the general condition worsened, and a short-term loss of consciousness was observed. Due to deteriorating health, he was taken to the emergency room of the ENT hospital. Otoscopically, there is purulent discharge with an unpleasant odor in the left external auditory canal. The tense part of the tympanic membrane is hyperemic; in its posterior upper quadrant there is a marginal defect filled with cholesteotomy masses. Rigidity of the neck muscles is pronounced, Kernig's sign is positive on both sides. The fundus is without features.
Make a diagnosis
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic cholesteotomy otitis, complicated by meningitis.

180. A patient came to the ENT department with complaints of dizziness, unsteadiness of gait, involuntary deviation and periodic falls to the right side. Noise in the ear. In her medical history, she underwent an extensive sanitizing operation on the right ear, performed for suppurating cholesteatoma. In the postoperative period, short-term dizziness associated with changes in head position was observed. Recently, these symptoms have intensified, dizziness on the right side has become longer and more pronounced. Gait instability appeared with a constant deviation to the right side. She did not notice any purulent discharge from the ear. When examined by the ENT organs, no visible pathology was found. The radical cavity on the right is completely epidermised, there is no discharge. On the medial wall of the cavity at the site of the projection of the horizontal semicircular canal there is a small defect in the area of ​​epidermization, covered with a crust. When performing a pressor test, symptoms of dizziness and nystagmus appear, which stop on their own.
Make a diagnosis
Answer: Labyrinthine fistula

181. A patient consulted an otorhinolaryngologist with complaints of itching in the ears, foreign body sensation, and decreased hearing in both ears. According to the patient, itching in the ears has been observed over the past year, but over the past week the condition has worsened, weeping and scanty discharge have appeared, and the itching has intensified. On otoscopy, the skin of the external auditory canals is slightly hyperemic and infiltrated. In the membranous-cartilaginous section there are pityriasis-like scales of desquamated epidermis. At the bottom of the bony part of the ear canal, closer to the membrane, there is discharge, mucous with crumbly inclusions. The eardrums are slightly hyperemic.
Make a diagnosis.
Answer: Otomycosis

182. A 45-year-old patient was brought to the inpatient department of the ENT department by a clinic doctor. While cleaning his ear, the patient suddenly became dizzy, felt nauseated and vomited once, and sweated profusely. The patient was laid on the couch. Nystagmus was observed. In the past, similar symptoms were observed, but to a lesser extent, usually during periods when the patient himself performed ear toilet. The patient has been suffering from chronic otitis media since early childhood. Notes periodic exacerbations of the process. When examining the left ear, there are no changes in the skin of the external auditory canal. There is a small amount of purulent discharge in the ear canal. The tympanum is practically absent, a total defect. The mucous membrane of the tympanic cavity is infiltrated, edematous, and moderately bulging. When performing a pressor test, nystagmus is observed. There are no spontaneous vestibular disorders.
What is the diagnosis:
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic purulent otitis, complicated by labyrinthine fistula.

183. A 32-year-old patient complains of severe pain in the left side of her head, which has been especially bothersome in recent days. There is no appetite, there are bouts of vomiting not associated with food intake. He has been suffering from middle ear disease with hearing loss for about 15 years. Periodically, there is an exacerbation of the process, accompanied by suppuration. The last exacerbation was observed six months ago, during which a sharp decrease in hearing developed, which continues to this day. The skin is pale gray in color, with an earthy tint. The tongue is coated. Pulse 48 beats per minute. The patient is lethargic, inhibited, and tearful. She cannot carry out the simplest commands, does not understand speech addressed to her, and cannot remember the name of the objects shown to her. She is verbose, pronounces certain words incorrectly, and does not construct sentences correctly. Mild stiffness of the neck muscles is detected, a positive Babinski reflex and a slight increase in deep reflexes on the right are detected. Otoscopy on the right reveals purulent discharge in the ear canal. After toileting, an extensive marginal defect of the tympanic membrane filled with swelling granulations is visible. The projection of the mastoid process is slightly painless. The cerebrospinal fluid is cloudy and flows out under pressure. A congestive fundus nipple was detected.
Make a diagnosis
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic otitis, complicated by otogenic abscess of the temporal lobe of the brain.

184. Patient S., 45 years old, came to the ENT department with complaints of hoarseness, sore throat, and itching in the throat. He has a history of smoking for 25 years. Swallowing is painless, mouth opening is free. With indirect laryngoscopy: the pyriform sinuses are free and symmetrical, the epiglottis is mobile. The lumen of the larynx is free, with phonation there is a slight incompleteness of the glottis in the middle third. In the interarytenoid space there are cone-shaped dense outgrowths on the surface of the mucosa.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Pachydermic laryngitis

185. Patient S. applied to the ENT department with complaints of difficulty swallowing, choking on liquid food. According to the patient, he has not eaten for three days, body temperature is 39.5 degrees, the skin is moist, the voice is hoarse, breathing is free, opening the mouth is not difficult. On examination, there is diffuse hyperemia in the pharynx, the tonsils are moderately swollen and loose. With indirect laryngoscopy, the pyriform sinuses are filled with saliva, the lingual-epiglottic space is narrowed, the epiglottis is thickened, infiltrated, limited in mobility, the lumen of the larynx is difficult to see, and is free. The vocal folds close.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Abscess of the epiglottis

186. Patient S., 25 years old, came to the emergency room of the ENT clinic with complaints
For sore throat, difficulty swallowing. In her medical history, she underwent a tonsillectomy 5 years ago. On examination, he notices drooling and protruding tongue is painful. When pressing with a spatula on the back third of the tongue, the pain syndrome intensifies to the point of unbearable. There is diffuse hyperemia in the pharynx. When examining the laryngopharynx, there are single point formations of gray-yellow color in the projection of the root of the tongue.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Lingual sore throat

187. A 20-year-old patient came to the emergency room with complaints of a sore throat that worsened when swallowing and talking, weakness and malaise. Increase in body temperature to 38?, swelling in the submandibular and submental areas. On palpation in the submental area, there is an infiltrate spreading to the front and left lateral surface of the neck, the skin is hyperemic. Opening the mouth is difficult, the tongue is raised, and there is a foul odor from the mouth. Upon examination, the pharynx is hyperemic, and compaction of the soft tissues of the floor of the mouth is determined. He became acutely ill after extraction of a carious tooth.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Cellulitis of the floor of the mouth

188. A 52-year-old patient was hospitalized in the ENT department with complaints of diplopia when looking to the left, slight drooping when looking to the left, drooping of the upper eyelid on the left, impaired abduction of the eyeball. Notes periodic headaches in the occipital region, periodic nasal congestion, accumulation of discharge in the nasopharynx. The ophthalmologist did not reveal any visual pathology; the fundus was without any features. Radiographs of the PPN reveal a homogeneous darkening in the area of ​​the left sphenoid sinus and the posterior cells of the ethmoidal labyrinth. The remaining paranasal sinuses are without pathology.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Chronic purulent ethmoiditis, sphenoiditis

189. A 50-year-old patient was hospitalized in the ENT department with complaints of constant transparent discharge from one half of the nose, which intensifies when the head is tilted down. Somatically healthy. The history indicates previous meningitis. Objectively: During rhinoscopy: the nasal mucosa is pink, moist, the nasal passages are free, no visible pathology was detected. No pathology was detected from other ENT organs. The patient was asked to demonstrate the nature of the discharge. In a sitting position with the head tilted forward, after a few minutes a clear liquid appeared in the form of several drops.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Nasal liquorrhea

190. A 15-year-old patient was hospitalized in the ENT department with complaints of difficulty in nasal breathing. History: 2 days ago I received a nose injury during a physical education lesson - hit in the face with a ball. On examination, the nasal septum in the cartilaginous region was symmetrically swollen. No pathology was detected from other ENT organs.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Nasal septum hematoma

191. A 10-year-old girl was taken to the emergency room with complaints of sore throat, fever, weakness, malaise. According to her medical history, she fell ill three days ago. Objectively: The patient’s condition is assessed as moderate, body temperature is 40?, the skin is moist. During pharyngoscopy: The pharyngeal mucosa is hyperemic, the tonsils are covered with a white coating, and an enlargement of the lymph nodes of the neck, submandibular and maxillary region is determined. Enlarged lymph nodes in the axillary and groin areas were detected.
In blood tests: leukocytes-13 x 109 g/l
Segmented neutrophils -23%
Rod -0%
Lymphocytes-50%
Eosinophils-0%
Monocytes-26
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Monocytic tonsillitis.

192. A 60-year-old patient, due to a hypertensive crisis, has decreased hearing in her left ear and has developed ringing. Hearing loss has persisted over the past year. Objectively, no pathology was detected by the ENT organs. AD -AS ear canals are free, Mt- gray in color without signs of inflammation. SR-on the right ear 5m, on the left ear - hears only loud spoken speech. On the audiogram: AD - hearing preserved, AS - increase in bone thresholds of tonal perception by 50-55 dts in a descending manner.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Left-sided chronic sensorineural hearing loss of vascular origin

193. The patient consulted an ENT doctor with complaints of a feeling of awkwardness when swallowing, tingling, and a sensation of a foreign body in the throat. This uncomfortable state has been observed over the past year. Over the past two weeks, the sensations described above have intensified. An examination of the ENT organs revealed: a curvature of the nasal septum to the left, difficult nasal breathing, which does not bother the patient. In the pharynx, the lateral ridges are thickened, on the posterior wall of the pharynx there are islands of hyperplastic lymphoid tissue, against the background of pale pharyngeal mucosa. Palatine tonsils are small without plaques or plugs.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Lateral and granulosa pharyngitis

194. The patient during prof. examination revealed dense plugs on the surface of the palatine tonsils. When examining the root of the tongue, similar formations were revealed at the site of the projection of the lingual tonsil. The plugs are cone-shaped, rise above the surface of the mucous membrane, and are difficult to remove.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Pharyngomycosis

195. An 18-year-old patient was brought to the emergency room by ambulance with complaints of malaise, headache, and sore throat. She became acutely ill and considered herself ill for three days. The patient is weakened and has difficulty sitting. The skin is pale, moist, body temperature is 38-39°, pulse is 82 beats per minute. The pharyngeal mucosa is hyperemic with a bluish tint, the tonsils are enlarged and covered with a dirty gray coating, spreading to the palatine arches. The plaques are difficult to remove; beneath them is bleeding tonsil tissue. The soft tissues around the tonsils are pasty, swollen, and there is bad breath. Swelling of soft tissues was detected in the maxillofacial area and the lateral surface of the neck.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Diphtheria pharynx

196. Patient N., 45 years old, who moved from Belarus, turned to an ENT doctor with complaints of difficulty breathing, dry nasal cavity, and accumulation of crusts in it. Recently, he has been experiencing persistent hoarseness, shortness of breath on exertion, and cough. Considers himself sick for the last 10-15 years. Clinical manifestations of the disease developed slowly without pain or fever. The lumen of the nasal cavity is narrowed due to dense pale pink infiltrates, which are localized in the vestibule of the nose and spread further to the choanae. In the pharynx - the soft palate is shortened, scarred, the uvula is turned posteriorly, the lumen of the pharynx is narrowed. In the larynx, cicatricial changes were detected in the subglottic space.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Scleroma of the nose, pharynx, larynx.

197. A 52-year-old woman consulted an ENT doctor with complaints of a formation in the auricle, which did not cause any concern. According to her, the patient first noticed the formation about a year ago. At the beginning it looked like a speck, gradually increasing in size. Recently, the surface of the formation has become ulcerated, covered with a crust, and an infiltrate has appeared around it. When I accidentally touched the auricle, pain began to appear, and when the crust was removed, a drop of blood appeared. When examined in the thicket of the shell, closer to the skin of the ear canal, a formation measuring 1.0x1.5 cm, dense, lumpy, covered with a crust, around the formation there is a rim of hyperemic skin.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Basal cell carcinoma of the auricle

198. A 25-year-old patient consulted an ENT doctor with complaints of headache, weakness, malaise, nasal congestion, and purulent discharge. According to the patient, she became acutely ill after suffering from hypothermia. On examination, the nasal mucosa is hyperemic, moderately edematous, with purulent discharge in the common nasal passage. The x-ray shows the fluid level against the background of parietal hyperplasia of the maxillary sinus mucosa.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Exacerbation of chronic bilateral sinusitis

199. A 25-year-old patient was brought to the emergency room of the ENT department with complaints of difficulty in nasal breathing, swelling and pain in the vestibule of the nose, and an increase in body temperature to 38?. According to the patient, about two weeks ago he received an injury to the external nose - an accidental blow with his hand during a sports game. There was no bleeding. Nasal congestion appeared, which did not bother me much. For the last two or three days, the nose has become “swollen”, pain has appeared, and the body temperature has risen to 38.5°. During anterior rhinoscopy, the nasal septum in the cartilaginous section is symmetrically enlarged, the edematous mucosa is sharply hyperemic.
Make a diagnosis:
Answer: Suppurating hematoma of the nasal septum

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