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Neuroscience Proficiency Test. Neurology test Immunoglobulins class M

-Diseases caused by gene mutations

-Diseases that are detected in several relatives

+Diseases that appear at birth

-Diseases that cannot be treated.

2. Hereditary diseases are:

+Diseases whose etiology is mutations

-Diseases occurring in relatives

-Congenital diseases

3.Sibs are:

-All relatives of the proband;

-Proband's uncles;

-Parents of the proband

+Brothers and sisters of the proband from the same parents.

4. Proband is:

-A healthy person who has applied for medical genetic consultation

+The person from whom the pedigree collection begins.

-Gene responsible for transcription regulation

5. Hereditary diseases are characterized by all of the following, except:

-Accumulation of cases of the same disease in a family

-Damage to several body systems

+ Contagiousness (infectiousness) of the disease

6. Hereditary diseases include the following diseases, except:

-Genetic diseases of somatic cells

-Diseases that occur when mother and fetus are incompatible with antigens

-Multifactorial diseases (diseases with hereditary predisposition)

+Vector-borne diseases

7.Chromosomal diseases occur due to the following mutations, except:

+Gene mutations

-Chromosomal mutations

-Genomic mutations

8.Transmission of a chromosomal disease is characterized by:

+Transmission of chromosomal disease in most cases is absent due to the death of the patient or lack of offspring

-Transmission of chromosomal disease in most cases occurs from generation to generation

-Transmission of a chromosomal disease in most cases occurs through one or several generations

9. The appearance of clinical signs of chromosomal diseases is observed:

-In early childhood

+In most cases - before birth

-After exposure to specific environmental factors throughout life

10.A characteristic feature of chromosomal diseases is:

-Variety of clinical manifestations only in childhood

+ Similarity of clinical manifestations between various chromosomal diseases

-Diversity of manifestations throughout life

11. The clinical picture of chromosomal diseases is characterized by: + A combination of congenital malformations, mental retardation or mental retardation, delayed physical development, abnormalities of the musculoskeletal system,

- Hereditary metabolic disorders with secondary damage to organs and systems

-Congenital defects

-Correct B and C

12.What hereditary diseases are diagnosed using cytogenetic methods:

-Monogenic diseases

-Multifactorial diseases

+Chromosomal diseases

13. Monogenic (synonym - gene) diseases are subject to:

-Polygenic type of inheritance

+ Menlevsky type of inheritance

-Do not have a clear type of inheritance

14. Which hereditary diseases are not monogenic diseases:

+Genomic diseases

-Congenital malformations of monogenic etiology

-Inherited metabolic diseases

15.The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) method refers to:

- To cytogenetic methods

+To molecular genetic methods

- To biochemical methods

16. Multifactorial diseases are caused by:

-A large number of damaged genes

+The total effect of genetic and environmental factors

-Multiple activation of the affected gene

17. Which hereditary diseases do not belong to multifactorial diseases:

-Common somatic diseases of middle age (hypertension, peptic ulcer, etc.)

-Common mental and nervous diseases (schizophrenia, manic-depressive psychosis, multiple sclerosis)

+ Hereditary metabolic diseases

18.What methods are not used to prove the multifactorial nature of the disease

-Study of the association of genetic markers with disease

-Clinical and genealogical

-Twin

+Cytogenetic method

19.Genetic markers include:

-AB0 blood group antigens

-Immunoglobulins class M

+All of the above is true

20. The risk of developing a multifactorial disease in a patient does not depend on:

-Number of blood relatives with this disease

-The severity of the disease in blood relatives

+Molecular mass of genetic material responsible for the development of multifactorial disease

-Degree of relationship with relatives with this disease

21. Preconception prevention of hereditary diseases is carried out:

-During the first two trimesters of pregnancy

+During the entire period starting a few months before conception and ending with the 10th week of pregnancy

-In the first 12 weeks of embryonic development

22.Preconception prophylaxis should include:

+Take folic acid and B vitamins

-Semi-bed rest, limited lifting of heavy objects

- Taking phenobarbital

23. Preconception prevention of hereditary diseases is aimed at reducing the risk of development in a child

- Monogenic diseases

+Congenital malformations of a multifactorial nature

-Chromosomal diseases

24.What diseases are detected using the screening program? +Phenylketonuria

-Down's disease

-Polydactyly

25. What is prenatal diagnosis of hereditary diseases + Diagnosis of hereditary disease in the fetus during intrauterine development

-Evaluation of the mother for the risk of hereditary diseases during pregnancy

-Sifting program

The essence of the concept of “coma” is defined:

-Disturbance of spontaneous breathing

- Swallowing and phonation disorders

-Lack of spontaneous speech

+Loss of consciousness.

Lumbar puncture is contraindicated if:

-Nasal liquorrhea

+Brainstem dislocation syndrome

-Concussion

Blood in the cerebrospinal fluid is observed when:

-Meningitis

-Lumboishalgia

+ Subarachnoid hemorrhage

-Cerebral infarction

If the patient has aphasia, it means that the following is damaged:

+Brain

-Spinal cord

-Gasserov knot

Dominant hemisphere in right-handed people:

-Right

+Left

What clinical signs are focal symptoms:

+Paralysis, aphasia

-Congested optic discs

-Increased vascular pattern on a survey craniogram

Which of the following symptoms is a general cerebral symptom?

+Increased intracranial pressure

-Loss of sensitivity

-Symptoms of tension in nerve trunks

These symptoms are a manifestation of hypertension syndrome (increased intracranial pressure) except:

-Morning headaches, often with vomiting

-Decreased visual acuity

+Paralysis

Which of the following signs indicates a neurological cause of coma?

+Focal neurological symptoms

-Wide pupils

-Convulsions

For the treatment of meningococcal meningitis, you should choose first:

-Clindamycin

-Tetracycline

-Kanamycin

+Penicillin

For the treatment of status epilepticus, intravenous injections of the following drugs are primarily used, except:

-Relanium

-Depakina

+Theopental sodium

What number of cells should be in a normal cerebrospinal fluid analysis?

+Up to 5 lymphocytes

-10-15 neutrophils

-Not a single cell

The presence of aphasia in a patient indicates:

+ Damage to the dominant hemisphere of the brain

- Damage to the hypoglossal nerve

-Dilation of the third ventricle of the brain

The term epistatus means:

-Widespread, pronounced muscle contraction

+Repetitive epileptic seizures, between which the patient does not regain consciousness

-Mental disorders in a patient with long-term epilepsy

The first-line anticonvulsant drug for the treatment of unspecified epilepsy is:

+Valproic acid preparations

-Phenobarbital

-Relanium

-Magnesium sulfate

Inflammatory changes in the cerebrospinal fluid are a sign of:

+Inflammation of the meninges (meningitis)

-Inflammation of the brain substance (encephalitis)

— Inflammation of the skull bones

Neck stiffness is checked as follows:

-Turn their head right and left

-Palpate the occipital muscles, tilting the head back

+Bend the head to the chest and evaluate the distance between the chin and chest area

The lower Brudzinski symptom is defined as follows:

-In a supine position, bend your legs at the knee joints at a right angle and tilt your head forward. If reflex extension of the head occurs, the symptom is considered positive.

-With the patient in a supine position, the head is tilted forward and, if a response flexion of the legs at the knee joints is detected, the symptom is considered positive

+ With the patient in the supine position, bend the leg at the knee and hip joint at right angles and then extend the leg at the knee joint. The symptom is considered positive if, when the leg is extended at the knee, there is flexion in the knee of the second leg.

If you are bitten by a tick, you must:

-Vaccinate on the first day after the bite

-Rinse the bite wound with an antiseptic, apply ointment with an antiviral drug and get tested for tick-borne encephalitis

+ Go to the emergency room, where seroprophylaxis of encephalitis is carried out with anti-tick immunoglobulin

All of the following drugs are used to prevent tick-borne encephalitis after a tick bite, except:

-Yodantipyrine

-Anti-mite immunoglobulin

+Vaccines against tick-borne encephalitis

The removed tick should be delivered for testing for tick-borne encephalitis:

-In the first 2 hours after removal

+In the first 48 hours after removal

-In the first 12 hours after removal

For subarachnoid hemorrhage, it is necessary to:

-Introduction of Vikasol

-Introduction of ascorbic acid

+ Maintain strict bed rest for 3 weeks and avoid straining

The following are contraindicated for a patient with myasthenia gravis:

-Diet rich in tyramine

-Overheating (taking hot baths, visiting a sauna)

+Drugs that disrupt neuromuscular transmission

Focal neurological symptoms are:

+Symptoms arising from one or more local damage to the nervous system

-Minor impairment of neurological functions.

-Symptoms that occur when the central nervous system is damaged

Bulging of a large fontanel in children is a sign of:

-Immaturity of the bones of the cranial vault

+Increased intracranial pressure

-Prematurity

The average hospital stay for a concussion is:

+14 days

— 1 month

— 3 days

Concussion refers to:

+Mild traumatic brain injury.

-Moderate traumatic brain injury.

-Severe traumatic brain injury.

Open traumatic brain injury means:

- Any damage to the soft tissues of the head.

+Wound with damage to the aponeurosis.

-Coincidence of the wound with a skull fracture.

A stroke is:

-Inflammation of neurons

-Any acute brain disease

+Acute cerebrovascular accident

Why is the first administration of a bactericidal antibiotic for meningococcal meningitis carried out at half the dose?

-For the prevention of allergic complications

-To test the sensitivity of the pathogen to this medicine

+Because there is a danger of iatrogenic endotoxic shock

The appearance of a “stars in the sky” rash on the patient’s body indicates:

-Development of polyneuritis

+ Development of meningococcal sepsis

-Carbon monoxide poisoning

If, when you centrifuge bloody cerebrospinal fluid, the supernatant has shades of yellow and is transparent, this may mean:

+Hemolysis of red blood cells, which means that blood entered the cerebrospinal fluid a long time ago, and not at the time of puncture from the injured blood vessel

-Continuing bleeding

-Increased content of neutrophils in the cerebrospinal fluid

The contraction of the heart muscle is controlled by the brain using which fibers:

-Cerebellar

-Pyramid path

+Vegetative

At what age does a child begin to consider urinary incontinence during sleep as a pathology?

+From 5 years old

-From 3 years old

-From 2 years old

Intestinal peristalsis is carried out using which nerve fibers:

-Pyramidal motor

+Vegetative

-Both pyramidal motor and autonomic

Home > Tests
QUALIFYING TESTS IN NEUROLOGY

1)NEUROLOGICAL DISEASES IN CHILDREN AND ADOLESCENCE

001.The average weight of a newborn’s brain is

V a)1/8 of body weight

b) 1/12 of body weight

c)1/20 of body weight

d)1/4 of body weight

002.The most common form of neuron in humans are cells

a) unipolar

b) bipolar

V c) multipolar

d) pseudo-unipolar

e) a) and b) are correct

003.Transmission of nerve impulse occurs

V a) in synapses

b) in mitochondria

c) in lysosomes

d) in the cytoplasm

004.The total amount of cerebrospinal fluid in a newborn is

005.The myelin sheath of the nerve fiber determines

a) axon length and accuracy of conduction

V b) nerve impulse conduction speed

c) axon length

d) belonging to sensitive conductors

e) belonging to motor conductors

006.Neuroglia performs

V a) supporting and trophic function

b) supporting and secretory function

c) trophic and energy function

d) only secretory function

e) only support function

007.Dura mater is involved in formation

a) covering bones of the skull

V b) venous sinuses, falx cerebri and tentorium cerebellum

c)choroid plexuses

d) holes in the base of the skull

d) cranial sutures

008. Cerebrospinal fluid pressure in school-age children is normally

a) 15-20 mm water. Art.

b) 60-80 mm water. Art.

V c) 120-170 mm water. Art.

d) 180-250 mm water. Art.

d) 260-300 mm water. Art.

009.Sympathetic cells lie

a) in the anterior horns

b) in the hind horns

c) in the anterior and posterior horns

V d)mainly in the lateral horns

010.The spinal cord of a newborn ends at the level of the lower edge of the vertebra

a) XII chest

b) I lumbar

c) II lumbar

V d)III lumbar

011.The palm-oral reflex is most pronounced in children aged

V a) up to 2 months

b) up to 3 months

c) up to 4 months

d) up to 1 year

012.The grasping reflex is physiological in children aged

V a) up to 1-2 months

b) up to 3-4 months

c) up to 5-6 months

d) up to 7-8 months

013. Myeloencephalic postural reflexes include

a) asymmetrical tonic cervical

b) symmetrical tonic cervical

c) tonic labyrinthine

d) a) and b) are correct

V d) all of the above

014.Visual concentration on an object appears in children

V a) by the end of the first month of life

b) in the middle of the second month of life

c) at the beginning of the third month of life

d) by the end of the third month of life

015. The principle of reciprocity is

a) in the relaxation of antagonists and agonists

b) in relaxation of only agonists

c) in relaxing only antagonists

V d) in contraction of agonists and relaxation of antagonists

016. With ptosis, pupil dilation on the left and right-sided hemiparesis, the focus is located

a) in the quadrigeminal region

b) in the internal capsule on the left

c) in the pons of the brain on the left

V d) in the left cerebral peduncle

017. Purulent meningitis most often affects children aged

V a)early

b) preschool

c) junior school

d) high school

018. Hemorrhagic rash with meningococcemia in children is a consequence

a) allergies

b) immunological reactivity

V c) damage to blood vessels and pathology of the blood coagulation system

d) all of the above

019. Recurrent purulent meningitis is more often observed in children

a) with staphylococcal infection

b)infancy

c) with immunodeficiency

V d) with liquorrhea

e) with allergies

020.In case of infectious-toxic shock, it is preferable to use

a) penicillin

b) chloramphenicol

V c) ampicillin

d) gentamicin

e)cephalosporins

021. Contact abscesses of otogenic origin in children are usually localized

a) in the brain stem

b) in the occipital lobe

c) in the frontal lobe

V d) in the temporal lobe

022. A single dose of nitrozepam (radedorm) prescribed to children aged 1 to 5 years is

023.Children are prescribed diazepam in a daily dose

a)0.05-0.1 mg/kg

V b)0.12-0.8 mg/kg

c)1-1.5 mg/kg

d)1.5-2 mg/kg

024.A single dose of phenibut for children under 8 years of age is

a) up to 5 years

V b) up to 7 years

c) up to 10 years

d) up to 12 years

026.Children aged 6 to 12 months are prescribed paracetamol in a single dose

027.The daily dose of sonapax (thioridazine) for children of early school age is

028. Myoclonic hyperkinesis in myoclonus epilepsy in children is characterized by

a) stability

V b) fluctuation in intensity by day

c) fluctuation in intensity by month

d) intensity is determined only by age

029. The role of hereditary factors in the development of generalized tics in children

a) absent

b) insignificant

V c) significant

d) depends on the age of the parents

d) depends on the gender of the patient

030. The shoulder-scapular-facial form of myopathy (Landouzi - Dezherina) has

V a) autosomal dominant type of inheritance

b)autosomal recessive type of inheritance

c) autosomal recessive, X-linked type of inheritance

d) autosomal recessive and autosomal dominant type of inheritance

e) type of inheritance is unknown

031. With Charcot-Marie neural amyotrophy, children experience

a) only flaccid paresis of the legs

b) only flaccid paresis of the arms

V c) flaccid paresis of arms and legs

d) only paresis of the trunk muscles

e) paresis of the muscles of the arms, legs and torso

032. With myasthenia gravis in children, the following autonomic disorders are observed

a) increased sweating

b) arterial hypotension

c) functional changes in the heart

d) functional changes in the gastrointestinal tract

V d) all of the above

033. Damage to the nervous system due to hereditary metabolic disorders in children is mainly associated

a) with cerebrovascular accident

b) with endocrine disorders

V c) with toxic damage to the neuron by metabolic products

d) with neuron hypoxia

e) with a change in cell permeability

034. The duration of dietary treatment for a patient with phenylketonuria is

a) from 2 to 6 months

b) from 2 months to 1 year

c) from 2 months to 3 years

V d) from 2 months to 5-6 years

d) all my life

035. The combination of severe delay in psychomotor development with hyperkinesis, convulsive syndrome and atrophy of the optic nerves in children under 2 years of age is typical

a) for a disease with a violation of amino acid metabolism

b) for carbohydrate metabolism disease

c) for mucopolysaccharidosis

d) for lipidoses

V d) for leukodystrophy

036. Shershevsky-Turner syndrome occurs due to disorders

V a) sex chromosomes

b) autosome

c) amino acid metabolism

d) vitamin metabolism

d) carbohydrate metabolism

037.The characteristics of Down's disease include all of the following, except

a) "clown" faces

b) oligophrenia

c) speech disorders

d)motility disorders

V d) pyramidal insufficiency

038. For Shershevsky-Turner syndrome, the patient’s karyotype

039.Patients with Down syndrome usually have all of the following symptoms, except

a) heart disease

b) obesity

c) polydactyly

d) hypospadias

V d) bone fragility

040. Shershevsky-Turner syndrome is more common

V a) in girls

b) boys

c) in persons of both sexes

d) only for adults

041.Marfan syndrome is characterized by

a)arachnodactyly

b) heart defects

c) subluxations of the lens

d) mental retardation

V e) all the listed symptoms

042. With hepato-cerebral dystrophy, muscle tone is changed according to the type

a) hypotension

b) pyramidal spasticity

V c) extrapyramidal rigidity

d) dystonia

e) increases of the mixed extrapyramidal and pyramidal type

043.High birth weight, Cushingoid features, enlarged heart, liver, spleen, microcephaly (less commonly hydrocephalus) are characteristic

a) for congenital rubella

b) for thyrotoxic embryofetopathy

V c) for diabetic embryopathy

d) for fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

044. Myxedema-like syndrome with mental retardation is observed in newborns from mothers suffering from

a) hyperthyroidism

b)hypothyroidism

V c) diffuse toxic goiter

d) focal (“island”) goiter

d) struma

045.Primary hypothyroidism in children is characterized by

a) dry and icteric skin

c) brittle “matte” hair

d) severe delay in psychomotor development

V d) all of the above

046. With microcephaly in children, it is usually

a) the brain is relatively larger than the skull

b) the brain is much smaller than the skull

V c) the decrease in the cranium approximately corresponds to the decrease in the brain

d) only the brain skull decreases relative to the facial skull

e) the brain and facial skull decrease proportionally

047.Secondary microcephaly develops in children

a) in the prenatal period

b) only postnatally

V c) in the perinatal period and in the first months of life

d) at any age

e) always over 1 year of age

048. The prognosis for microcephaly in children is determined

a) head growth rate

b) the size of the brain skull

c) severity of motor defect

V d) degree of mental retardation

d) start date of therapy

049.Children with microcephaly are usually observed by a neurologist

a) up to 15 years

b) up to high school age

c) up to early preschool age

050. Excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid underlies hydrocephalus

a) external

b) internal

c) open or communicating

V d) hyperproductive

e) aresorptive

051. Most hydrocephalus in children are

a) traumatic

b) toxic

c) hypoxic

V d) congenital

e) acquired

052.With compensated hydrocephalus in children, intracranial pressure

a) persistently high

V b) normal

c) decreased

d) unstable with a tendency to increase

e) unstable with a downward trend

053. In the most severe cases of hydrocephalus in children,

a) optic neuritis

V b)hydroanencephaly

c) pyramidal insufficiency

d) dystrophy of the subcortical nodes

e) damage to the cerebellum and its connections

054.A child with congenital hydrocephalus is usually born

V a) with a normal or slightly enlarged head

b) with an increase in head circumference by 4-5 cm

c) with a reduced head

d) with an increase in head circumference by 5-8 cm

055. Severe tetraparesis, mental retardation, pseudobulbar syndrome are characteristic

V a) for hydroanencephaly

b) for occlusive hydrocephalus

c) for external hydrocephalus

d) for hydrocephalus after birth trauma

e) for communicating hydrocephalus

056. Autonomic disorders are especially pronounced in children with occlusion at the level

a) lateral ventricle

V b)III ventricle

c) IV ventricle

d) at any level

057. Increased digital impressions on the craniogram are characteristic of hydrocephalus

a) only external

V b) occlusal

c) communicating

058. A sharp decrease in the luminous ring is characteristic of hydrocephalus

a) external

b) communicating

V d) occlusal in the initial period

e) occlusive with hydroanencephaly

a) for viral infections

b) for intestinal infections

c) with neuroinfections

d) with cranial injuries

V e) for cranial injuries and infections

060. The appearance of shortness of breath in children when taking Diacarb indicates

a) about metabolic alkalosis

V b) about metabolic acidosis

c) about disturbance of cerebral hemodynamics

d) about dehydration

d) damage to the respiratory center

061. During perinatal encephalopathy there are

a) acute period

b) early recovery period

c) late recovery period

V d) all listed periods

062. In full-term children, most often observed

a) subdural hemorrhages

b) subarachnoid hemorrhages

d) periventricular hemorrhages

V e) parenchymal, subarachnoid hemorrhages

063. Severe muscular hypotonia in newborns is a reflection

a) brain hypoxia, immaturity

b) brain and spinal cord injuries

c) brain damage due to indirect bilirubin

d) degeneration of the anterior horns of the spinal cord

V d) all of the above reasons are possible

064.In the initial period of hemolytic disease in newborns, it is used

a) exchange blood transfusion

b) phototherapy

c)phenobarbital

d)prednisolone

V d) all of the above

065. Atrophy of the hand, trophic disorders and Horner’s symptom are typical

a) for Erb-Duchenne paresis

V b) for paresis Dejerine - Klumpke

c) for total paresis of the arm

d) for paresis of the diaphragm

e) for tetraparesis

066. In the complex treatment of obstetric paralysis, they use

a) massage, exercise therapy

b) transverse electrophoresis of aminophylline and nicotinic acid

c) orthopedic styling

d) acupuncture

V d) all of the above methods

067.Structural defect of the brain in cerebral palsy may affect development

a) only the motor sphere

b) only speeches

V c) the brain as a whole

d) has no effect

068. Cerebral palsy and perinatal encephalopathy have

a) clinical community

b) commonality only in the time of exposure to the damaging factor

c) only etiological commonality

V d) common etiology and time of damage

e) uniformity of flow

069. Exact timing of brain damage in cerebral palsy

a) can never be installed

V b) are established only in some cases

c) are always accurately known by accompanying characteristics

d) are established only morphologically

070.The main pathogenetic factors of cerebral palsy include

a) infectious

b) toxic

c) hypoxic

e) traumatic

V e) all of the above

071.Impaired cerebral circulation in the intra- or neonatal period leading to cerebral palsy is usually preceded by

a) intrauterine infection

b) metabolic disorders

V c) intrauterine hypoxia or asphyxia

d) injury to a pregnant woman

d) allergies of a pregnant woman

072. With spastic diplegia in children,

a) only central paresis of the distal legs

b) only paraparesis of the legs

c) only tetraparesis

V d) paraparesis of the legs or tetraparesis

073. Convergent strabismus in spastic diplegia is usually associated with a lesion

a) nucleus of the abducens nerve on one side

b) nuclei of the abducens nerve on both sides

c) abducens nerve roots at the base of the brain

d) reticular formation of the brain stem

V d) cortical gaze center on both sides

074. The predominance of damage to the proximal parts of the arms over the distal part in central tetraparesis is typical

a) for spastic diplegia only in infants

b) for double hemiplegia only in infants

V c) for spastic diplegia at any age

d) for double hemiplegia at any age

e) for natal spinal cord injury

075.The prevalence of cerebral palsy is per 1000 child population

a)0.5 and below

c)5 or more

d) 10 or more

d) 15 or more

076. A child with muscle hypotonia in the first 2-3 months of life may develop cerebral palsy in the form

a) atonic-astatic

b) spastic diplegia

c) hyperkinetic

V d) any of the above

077.The hyperkinetic form of cerebral palsy is characterized by the presence

a) athetosis

b) choreic hyperkinesis

c) torsion dystonia

d) choreoathetosis

V d)all of the above

078. Diagnosis of double hemiplegia is possible in children

V a) in the first month of life

b) from 1.5 years

c) from birth

d) from about 5-8 months of age

e) about 1 year

079. Hearing loss in cerebral palsy is more common

a) with spastic diplegia

b) with double hemiplegia

c) with hemiparetic form on the side of paresis

V d) with hyperkinetic form after kernicterus

e) with atonic-astatic form

080. Cerebral palsy in the first months of life can be suspected based on

a) risk factors during pregnancy and childbirth

b) pathological postural activity

c) clear delay in motor and mental development

d) muscle tone disorders

V d)all of the above

081. Over the course of 2-3 years of life, a child with cerebral palsy must be educated

a) stereognosis

b) praxis

c) spatial orientation

d) pre-speech and speech skills

V e) all listed skills

082. Anticholinergic drugs (cyclodol, ridinol, tropacin) are indicated for cerebral palsy

V a) with extrapyramidal rigidity, athetosis, torsion dystonia

b) not shown

c) indicated for atonic-astatic form

d) indicated in the presence of choreic hyperkinesis

083. In childhood, especially early age, the force of mechanical shock is softened

a) absence of dense fusions of cranial sutures

b) elasticity of the integumentary tissues of the skull

c) relative increase in subarachnoid space

V d) all of the above

084. In the presence of meningeal syndrome after traumatic brain injury in children, it is necessary

a) electroencephalography

b) biochemical blood test

c) determination of visual acuity and fundus examination

V d) spinal puncture

e) radiography of the base of the skull

085. Most often after a concussion in children,

a) epileptic syndrome

b) neurosis-like syndrome

c) hypothalamic syndrome

d) hydrocephalic syndrome

V d) cerebrasthenic syndrome

086. The focus of brain contusion occurs more often in children

a) only in the area of impact

b) only in the brain stem

V c) in the area of impact or counter-impact

d) only subtentorially

e) in the area of the subcortical nodes

087.The outcome of a brain contusion in children can be

a) traumatic arachnoiditis

b) organic cerebral defect

V c) systemic neurosis

d) traumatic epilepsy

e) cerebrasthenic and hypertensive-hydrocephalic syndrome

088. In childhood, injuries are more common

V a) meningeal hemorrhages

b) parenchymal hemorrhages

c) intraventricular hemorrhages

d) parenchymal and intraventricular hemorrhages

089.Epidural hematoma is often observed in children

V a) with a fracture of the bones of the calvarium

b) with a fracture of the base of the skull

c) when only the inner plate is fractured

d) only with a linear fracture

090. Clinical manifestations of traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage usually develop in children

a) subacute

b) after the “light” interval

c) wavy

e) the initial period is asymptomatic

091. When a fracture of the base of the skull occurs in children,

a) epidural hematoma

b) subarachnoid hemorrhage

c) subponeurotic hematoma

d) hemiparesis

V d) liquorrhea

092. A certificate of disability since childhood after a spinal cord injury is issued

a) only for school-age children

V b) depending on the nature of the residual effects

c) only in the presence of tetraparesis

d) only at an early age

093. Sanatorium-resort treatment for patients with spinal cord injury is indicated in children

a)after 1-2 months

b)after 2-3 months

V c)after 5-6 months

d)after 1 year

094. Contraindications to sanatorium-resort treatment of children after spinal cord injury are

a) paresis and paralysis

b) sensory disorders

V c) urinary disorders and bedsores

d) spinal deformity

d) muscle spasms

095. In order to prevent the development of persistent cerebrovascular disease after an acute period of traumatic brain injury, it is recommended to prescribe

a) nootropics

b) lipocerebrin

c) phytin, calcium glycerophosphate

d) vitamins

V d)all of the above

096. Disorders arising from spinal cord concussion in children

a) have only a local character

b) always spread throughout the spinal cord

c) localized only in the anterior and lateral cords

d)localized only in gray matter

V d) are widespread or local in nature

097. With a partial rupture of the spinal cord in children, it is possible

a) almost complete recovery

V b) partial restoration

c) there are no positive dynamics

d) positive dynamics only at an early age

098.In case of complete rupture of the spinal cord in children, recovery

V a) does not happen

b) can be partial

c) only sensitivity improves

d) partial recovery only in young children

099.If a vertebra is fractured, displaced or dislocated,

a) subarachnoid hemorrhage

V b) compression syndrome of the spinal cord and roots

c) widespread polyradiculoneuritis

d) damage to the anterior horns of the spinal cord

e) serous meningitis

100. In early childhood, the cause of convulsive seizures is

V a) lack of pyridoxine (vitamin B6)

b) lack of calcium pantothenate (vitamin B5)

c) lack of folic acid (vitamin B12)

101.Secondary generalized epilepsy occurs in children against the background

a) allergies

b)immunodeficiency

V c) organic cerebral defect

d) infectious disease

e) traumatic brain injury

102.Children should be included in the high “risk” group for epilepsy

a) with febrile seizures at an early age

b) with affective-respiratory paroxysms

c) with an organic cerebral defect

d) with a hereditary history of epilepsy

V d) with all the listed factors

103. It is advisable to combine phenobarbital for young children with the prescription

b) sodium bicarbonate

c) magnesium sulfate

V g) calcium

104. Gradual withdrawal of anticonvulsant treatment is possible in children

a) 1-2 years after the last seizure

b) 7-10 years after the last seizure

c) with positive EEG dynamics, but depending on the last seizure

V d) 3-5 years after the seizure with normalization of the EEG

e) during puberty

105.Patients with epilepsy or epileptic syndrome are registered with a pediatric neurologist

a) do not consist

b) consist only at an early age

V c) consist in the absence of mental changes and mental equivalents

d) all patients under 15 years of age

106. Fears predominate in children of preschool and school age

a) darkness

b) loneliness

c) animals that frightened the child

d) characters from fairy tales and films

V d)all of the above

107. In the pre- and pubertal periods, fear is more often noted

a) without specific content

c) illness and death

V d) animals and people

108. In the pre- and pubertal periods, fear is often accompanied

a) hallucinations

c) convulsions

d) pronounced vegetative reaction

V d)urinary incontinence

109.Stuttering mainly develops with age

V a) up to 5 years

b) junior school

c) high school

d) prepubertal

110.Neurotic tics are most common in older people

a) up to 3 years

b) from 3 to 5 years

V c) from 5 to 12 years

d) from 12 to 16 years old

e) over 16 years old

111. The presence of enuresis occurs in children

a) over 2 years old

V b) over 4 years old

c) over 6 years old

d) over 8 years old

d) over 10 years old

Bibliographic index
Belarusian-Polish scientific and practical seminar = Bialorusko-polski naukovo-praktyczny seminarium: abstract. report, 9-11 Oct. 2002, Brest, Rep. Belarus.
Unified qualification directory (2)
Directory
1. The section “Qualification characteristics of positions of workers in the field of healthcare” of the Unified Qualification Directory of Positions of Managers, Specialists and Employees (hereinafter referred to as the EKS) is intended to facilitate the correct selection
The program was approved at: a methodological meeting of the Department of Social and Forensic Psychiatry of the Faculty of Pedagogical Education, MMA named after. I. M. Sechenov minutes of the meeting
Program
Issues of improving postgraduate education in psychiatry are becoming very relevant at the present time, both in connection with the increase in mental morbidity in the population, and with the emergence of new areas of psychiatric science and practice.

QUALIFICATION TEST IN NEUROLOGY

Section 1. CLINICAL ANATOMY AND PHYSIOLOGY OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM. TOPICAL DIAGNOSTICS

a) the upper line

b) outer straight line

c) bottom line

d) lower oblique

e) upper oblique

01.2. Mydriasis occurs when there is a lesion

a) the upper portion of the magnocellular nucleus of the oculomotor nerve

b) the lower portion of the magnocellular nucleus of the oculomotor nerve

c) parvocellular accessory nucleus of the oculomotor nerve

d) middle unpaired nucleus

e) nuclei of the medial longitudinal fasciculus

01.3. If the upper limit of conduction disorders of pain sensitivity is determined at the level of the T 10 dermatome, the spinal cord lesion is localized at the level of the segment

a) T 6 or T 7

b) T 8 or T 9

c) T 9 or T 10

d) T 10 or T 11

e) T 11 or T 12

01.4. With central paralysis there is

a) muscle atrophy

b) increased tendon reflexes

c) sensitivity disorder of the polyneuritic type

d) disorders of electrical excitability of nerves and muscles

e) fibrillary twitching

01.5. Choreic hyperkinesis occurs when there is a lesion

a) paleostriatum

b) neostriatum

c) medial globus pallidus

d) lateral globus pallidus

d) cerebellum

01.6. Deep sensory fibers for the lower extremities are located in a thin bundle of posterior funiculi in relation to the midline

a) laterally

b) medially

c) ventrally

d) dorsally

e) ventrolateral

01.7. Deep sensory fibers for the trunk and upper extremities are located in the wedge-shaped bundle of the posterior funiculi in relation to the midline

a) laterally

b) medially

c) ventrally

d) dorsally

e) ventromedial

01.8. Fibers of pain and temperature sensitivity (lateral lemniscus) join fibers of deep and tactile sensitivity (medial lemniscus)

a) in the medulla oblongata

b) in the pons of the brain

c) in the cerebral peduncles

d) in the optic thalamus

d) in the cerebellum

01.9. The main mediator of the inhibitory effect is

a) acetylcholine

c) norepinephrine

d) adrenaline

d) dopamine

01.10. All afferent pathways of the striopallidal system end

b) in the striatum

c) in the medial nucleus of the globus pallidus

d) in the subthalamic nucleus

d) in the cerebellum

01.11. Instability in the Romberg position when closing the eyes increases significantly if ataxia occurs.

a) cerebellar

b) sensitive

c) vestibular

d) frontal

e) mixed

01.12. Regulation of muscle tone by the cerebellum when changing the position of the body in space is carried out through

a) red nucleus

b) Lewis body

c) substantia nigra

d) striatum

e) blue spot

01.13. Binasal hemianopsia occurs with lesions

c) visual radiance

d) optic tracts

d) black substance

01.14. Compression leads to a concentric narrowing of the visual field

a) optic tract

b) optic chiasm

c) external geniculate body

d) visual radiance

d) black substance

01.15. When the optic tract is damaged, hemianopia occurs

a) binasal

b) homonymous

c) bitemporal

d) lower quadrant

d) upper quadrant

0116. Homonymous hemianopsia is not observed with the lesion

a) optic tract

b) optic chiasm

c) visual radiance

d) internal capsule

d) optic nerve

01.17. The pathway passes through the superior cerebellar peduncles

a) posterior spinocerebellar

b) anterior spinocerebellar

c) fronto-pontine-cerebellar

d) occipitotemporal pons-cerebellar

e) spinocerebellar

01.18. Olfactory hallucinations are observed when affected

a) olfactory tubercle

b) olfactory bulb

c) temporal lobe

d) parietal lobe

e) frontal lobe

01.19. Bitemporal hemianopsia is observed with lesions

a) central parts of the optic chiasm

b) external parts of the optic chiasm

c) visual tracts of the optic chiasm

e) frontal lobe

01.20. True urinary incontinence occurs when there is damage

a) paracentral lobules of the anterior central gyrus

b) cervical spinal cord

c) lumbar enlargement of the spinal cord

d) cauda equina spinal cord

e) pons brain

01.21. With paresis of upward gaze and convergence disorder, the focus is localized

a) in the upper parts of the pons of the brain

b) in the lower parts of the pons of the brain

c) in the dorsal part of the midbrain tegmentum

d) in the cerebral peduncles

d) in the medulla oblongata

01.22. Half the diameter of the spinal cord (Brown-Séquard syndrome) is characterized by central paralysis on the side of the lesion in combination

c) in the pons of the brain on the left

d) in the area of the apex of the pyramid of the left temporal bone

d) in the cerebral peduncle

01.25. A seizure begins from the toes of the left foot if the focus is located

a) in the anterior adversive field on the right

b) in the upper part of the posterior central gyrus on the right

e) in the middle section of the anterior central gyrus on the right

01.28. The cervical plexus is formed by the anterior branches of the spinal nerves and cervical segments

01.29. The brachial plexus forms the anterior branches of the spinal nerves

01.30. Nerve impulses are generated

a) cell nucleus

b) outer membrane

c) axon

d) neurofilaments

e) dendrites

01.31. Alexia is observed when affected

a) superior frontal gyrus

b) parahippocampal gyrus

c) thalamus

d) angular gyrus

e) pons brain

01.32. On a section of the lower part of the medulla oblongata, nuclei are not distinguished

a) tender and wedge-shaped

b) spinal tract of the trigeminal nerve

c) hypoglossal nerves

d) facial, abducens nerves

01.33. The brainstem pons includes

a) red kernels

b) nuclei of the trochlear nerve

c) nuclei of the oculomotor nerve

d) nuclei of the abducens nerve

e) nuclei of the hypoglossal nerves

01.34. Hemianesthesia, hemiataxia, hemianopsia are characteristic of the lesion

a) globus pallidus

b) caudate nucleus

c) red nucleus

d) thalamus

d) black substance

01.35. Damage to the cauda equina of the spinal cord is accompanied by

a) flaccid paresis of the legs and sensory impairment of the radicular type

b) spastic paresis of the legs and pelvic disorders

c) impaired deep sensitivity of the distal legs and urinary retention

d) spastic paraparesis of the legs without sensory disorders and dysfunction of the pelvic organs

e) impairment of deep sensitivity of the proximal legs and urinary retention

01.36. True astereognosis is caused by a lesion

a) frontal lobe

b) temporal lobe

c) parietal lobe

d) occipital lobe

d) cerebellum

01.37. Loss of the upper quadrants of the visual fields occurs with lesions

a) external parts of the optic chiasm

b) lingual gyrus

c) deep parts of the parietal lobe

d) primary visual centers in the thalamus

d) optic nerve

01.38. Astereognosis occurs when there is a lesion

a) lingual gyrus of the parietal lobe

b) superior temporal gyrus

c) inferior frontal gyrus

d) superior parietal lobule

d) cerebellum

01.39. Closure of the reflex arc from the biceps brachii tendon occurs at the level of the following segments of the spinal cord

01.40. Association fibers connect

a) symmetrical parts of both hemispheres

b) asymmetrical parts of both hemispheres

c) cortex with the visual thalamus and underlying sections (centrifugal and centripetal paths)

d) different parts of the cortex of the same hemisphere

d) cerebral peduncles

01.41. Patient with visual agnosia

a) sees surrounding objects poorly, but recognizes them

b) sees objects well, but the shape seems distorted

c) does not see objects in the periphery of the visual field

d) sees objects, but does not recognize them

e) sees surrounding objects poorly and does not recognize them

01.42. Patient with motor aphasia

a) understands spoken speech, but cannot speak

b) does not understand spoken speech and cannot speak

c) can speak, but does not understand spoken speech

d) can speak, but the speech is scanned

e) can speak, but does not remember the names of objects

a) cannot speak and does not understand spoken speech

b) understands spoken speech, but cannot speak

c) can speak, but forgets the names of objects

d) does not understand spoken speech, but controls his own speech

d) does not understand spoken speech and does not control his own

01.44. Amnestic aphasia is observed with lesions

a) frontal lobe

b) parietal lobe

c) the junction of the frontal and parietal lobes

d) the junction of the temporal and parietal lobes

e) occipital lobe

01.45. The combination of impaired swallowing and phonation, dysarthria, paresis of the soft palate, absence of the pharyngeal reflex and tetraparesis indicates a lesion

a) cerebral peduncle

b) pons brain

c) medulla oblongata

d) midbrain tegmentum

d) hypothalamus

01.46. The combination of paresis of the left half of the soft palate, deviation of the uvula to the right, increased tendon reflexes and pathological reflexes on the right extremities indicates a lesion

a) medulla oblongata at the level of the motor nucleus of the IX and X nerves on the left

b) medulla oblongata at the level of the XII nerve on the left

c) knee of the internal capsule on the left

d) posterior thigh of the internal capsule on the left

d) hypothalamus

01.47. In alternating Millard-Gubler syndrome, the focus is located

a) at the base of the cerebral peduncle

b) in the posterolateral part of the medulla oblongata

c) in the area of the red nucleus

d) at the base of the lower part of the pons

d) in the hypothalamus

01.48. Features of the pilomotor reflex disorder have topical and diagnostic significance in case of damage

a) quadrigeminal

b) medulla oblongata

c) hypothalamus

d) spinal cord

e) peripheral nerves

01.49. Lesions in the ventral half of the lumbar enlargement are not characterized by the presence

a) inferior flaccid paraparesis

b) disorders of pain sensitivity

d) sensitive ataxia of the lower extremities

e) preserved deep sensitivity

01.50. Oral automatism reflexes indicate damage to the tracts

a) corticospinal

b) corticonuclear

c) fronto-pontine-cerebellar

d) rubrospinal

e) spinocerebellar

01.51. The grasping reflex (Yaniszewski) is noted when affected

a) parietal lobe

b) temporal lobe

c) frontal lobe

d) occipital lobe

d) hypothalamus

01.52. Auditory agnosia occurs with damage

a) parietal lobe

b) frontal lobe

c) occipital lobe

d) temporal lobe

d) hypothalamus

01.53. Alternating Foville syndrome is characterized by simultaneous involvement of nerves in the pathological process

a) facial and abducens

b) facial and oculomotor

c) glossopharyngeal nerve and vagus

d) sublingual and accessory

e) additional and block
01.54. Jugular foramen syndrome is characterized by nerve damage

a) glossopharyngeal, vagus, accessory

b) vagus, accessory, sublingual

c) accessory, glossopharyngeal, sublingual

d) vagus, facial, trigeminal

e) vagus, oculomotor, abducens

01.55. Constructive apraxia occurs when there is a lesion

a) frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere

b) frontal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere

e) occipital lobes

01.56. Body schema disorder is noted when affected

a) temporal lobe of the dominant hemisphere

b) temporal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere

c) parietal lobe of the dominant hemisphere

d) parietal lobe of the non-dominant hemisphere

d) hypothalamus

01.57. Sensory aphasia occurs when there is a lesion

a) superior temporal gyrus

b) middle temporal gyrus

c) superior parietal lobule

d) inferior parietal lobule

d) hypothalamus

01.58. Motor apraxia in the left hand develops with the lesion

a) genu corpus callosum

b) trunk of the corpus callosum

c) thickening of the corpus callosum

d) frontal lobe

e) occipital lobe

01.59. The segmental apparatus of the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is represented by neurons of the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of segments

01.60. The caudal section of the segmental apparatus of the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is represented by neurons of the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the segment level

a) L 4 -L 5 -S 1

b) L 5 -S 1 -S 2

01.61. The ciliospinal center is located in the lateral horns of the spinal cord at the level of the segments

Section 2. MEDICAL GENETICS

02.1. Proband is:

A. A patient who consults a doctor

B. A healthy person who applied for medical genetic consultation

B. A person who first came under the supervision of a geneticist

D. The person from whom the pedigree collection begins

02.02. With what type of inheritance are significantly more often patients born into families with consanguineous marriages:

A. X-linked recessive

B. Autosomal recessive

B. X-linked dominant

02.03. Siblings are:

A. All relatives of the proband

B. Proband's uncle

B. Parents of the proband

D. Brothers and sisters of the proband

02.04. The objects of study of clinical genetics are:

A. Sick person

B. The patient and sick relatives

B. The patient and all members of his family, including healthy ones

02.05. What is the probability of giving birth to a sick child by a woman who has a sick son and brother with hemophilia:

D. Close to 0%

02.06. Dolichocephaly is:

A. Long narrow skull with prominent forehead and nape

B. Increase in the longitudinal size of the skull relative to the transverse

B. An increase in the transverse size of the skull with a relative decrease in the longitudinal size

D. Expansion of the skull in the occipital region and narrowing in the frontal region

02.07. Epicanthus is:

A. Fused eyebrows

B. Wide-set eyes

B. Vertical skin fold at the inner corner of the eye

D. Narrowing of the palpebral fissure

02.08. Oligodactyly is:

A. Absence of fingers

B. Finger fusion

B. Missing one or more fingers

D. Increasing the number of fingers

02.09. Cryptorchidism is:

A. Non-closure of the urethra

B. Undescended testicles into the scrotum

B. Underdevelopment of the genital organs

02.10. Arachnodactyly is:

A. Shortening of fingers

B. Changing finger shapes

B. Increase in finger length

02.11. Syndactyly is:

A. Fusion of the limbs along the entire length

B. Fusion of the limb in the lower third

B. Finger fusion

02.12 Brachycephaly is:

A. Expansion of the skull in the occipital part and narrowing in the frontal part

B. “tower skull”

B. An increase in the transverse size of the head with a relative decrease in the longitudinal size

D. Increase in the longitudinal size of the skull relative to the transverse

02.13. Anophthalmia is:

A. Congenital absence of eyeballs

B. Congenital absence of the iris

B. Reduced distance between the inner corners of the eye sockets

02.14 Micrognathia is:

A. Small size of the lower jaw

B. Small size of the upper jaw

B. Small oral opening

02.15 Heterochromia of the iris is:

A. Abnormal color perception

B. Different colors of the iris

B. Differences in iris size

02.16 The most appropriate periods of pregnancy to study the level of alpha-fetoprotein in the blood:

A. 7-10 weeks

B. 16-20 weeks

B. 25-30 weeks

G. 33-38 weeks

02.17 Karyotype characteristic of Klinefelter syndrome:

47, ХХУ
47, XUU
46, XY
45, U
47, XXX

45, XO
47, ХХУ
46, XX / 47, XX + 13
46, XX, del(р5)
47, XX + 18

Down's disease
Edwards syndrome
Patau syndrome
Cystic fibrosis
Congenital malformations

45, X
47, XY + 21
45, 0U
47, ХХУ

Only for men
Only for women
In men and women

Prenatal diagnosis
Screening programs
Artificial insemination

is:

Cytochrome C
Prozerin
D-penicillamine
Nootropil
Hepatoprotectors

Hypotyrosinemia
Hypophenylalaninemia
Hypoceruloplasminemia
Hyper-3,4-dihydrophenylalaninemia

Reduced blood ceruloplasmin
Increased copper content in the liver
Decreased urinary copper excretion
Increase in "direct" blood copper

enzyme:

Galactokinases
Dehydropteridine reductase
Dystrophin
Ceruloplasmin

Transcription
Processing
Polyploidy
Broadcast
Replication

Phenotype
Genotype
Karyotype
Recombinant

Neurons
Hepatocytes
Zygotes
Gametes
Epithelial

Clinical and genealogical
Direct DNA probing
Microbiological
Cytological
Twin

Self-reproduction
Methylation
Nucleosome formation
Double-stranded structure

Apoptosis
Necrosis
Degeneration
Chromatolysis
Mutation

Chromosism
Polyploidy
Genetic load
Mosaicism

Disturbance in gene structure
Change in the number of chromosomes
Accumulation of intronic repeats
Change in chromosome structure

Genomic mutation
Gene mutation
Chromosomal mutation

Chromosomal mutations
Genomic mutations
Gene mutations

12,5%
As in the population

100%

Mendel
Beadle-Tatuma
Hardy-Weinberg
Morgana
Wright

02.40. The main objectives of medical genetics are to study

laws of heredity and variability of the human body
population statistics of hereditary diseases
molecular and biochemical aspects of heredity
changes in heredity caused by environmental factors
all of the above

detected in a heterozygous state
detected in a homozygous state
detected in hetero- and homozygous states
all of the above are false

by the action of a dominant gene
by the action of a recessive gene
by the action of both dominant and recessive genes
interaction of genotype with environmental factors

02.43. A karyotype is a set of features of the chromosome set of a cell, determined by:

number of sex chromosomes
chromosome shape
chromosome structure
all of the above
none of the above

predominantly affects males
prevalence of sick family members in the generation
manifestation of a pathological inherited trait in all generations without skipping
all of the above are true

the ratio of healthy and sick family members is 1:1
the disease is not related to consanguinity
the parents of the first identified patient are clinically healthy
all of the above is incorrect

the ratio of sick men in each generation is 2:1
only men get sick
only women get sick
signs of the disease are always found in the mother of the proband

mental development disorders
physical development disorders
multiple malformations
all listed

maternal somatic diseases
emotional stress
physical overload
viruses
all of the above factors

cerebrospinal pyramidal tracts
motor neurons of the anterior horns of the spinal cord
peripheral motor neuron
all of the above
none of the above

according to the autosomal dominant type
according to the autosomal recessive type
by recessive type associated with sex (X chromosome)
by dominant type associated with gender

with amyotrophy Charcot - Marie - Tuta
for hypertrophic neuropathy Dejerine - Sotta
for Erb's muscular dystrophy
for Becker-Kinner muscular dystrophy
for Kugelberg-Welander amyotrophy

anterior horns of the spinal cord
peripheral motor nerves
muscles of the distal limbs
subcortical nuclei

increased ceruloplasmin levels and hypercupremia
decreased ceruloplasmin levels and hypercupremia
increased ceruloplasmin levels and hypocupremia
decreased ceruloplasmin levels and hypocupremia

plastic extrapyramidal rigidity
akinesia
hypomimia
dementia

02.55. In Friedreich's disease there is

recessive inheritance pattern
dominant mode of inheritance
sex-linked (via the X chromosome)
all of the above

foot deformities
dysraphic status
damage to the heart muscle
decreased or lost reflexes
all of the above

along the peripheral nerves
in the spinal canal along the roots
intracranial along the cranial nerves
in any of the specified areas

autosomal dominant
autosomal recessive
recessive, sex-linked (via the X chromosome)
all of the above is incorrect

rounded skull, gothic palate, syndactyly, muscle hypotonia
dolichocephaly, cleft palate, arachnodactyly, muscle hypertonicity
Craniostenotic skull, cleft lip, presence of 6th digit, choreoathetosis
a combination of any of the above symptoms is observed

fusion of cervical vertebrae
fusion of the 1st cervical vertebra with the occipital bone
downward displacement of the cerebellar tonsils
cleft arch of the 1st cervical vertebra
all of the above

only clinical symptoms
at the clinical, biochemical and cellular levels
only at certain stages of metabolism
only at the cellular level

characteristic clinical picture and biochemical analysis
clinical picture
clinical picture, hormonal profile studies, biochemical analysis and pathological examination

transfer of a section of one chromosome to another
change in DNA structure
interaction of genetic and environmental factors
deletion, duplication, translocation of chromosome sections

50%;
close to 0%;
75%;
25%.

patient complaints and family history data
characteristic combination of clinical signs
biochemical analysis
clinical symptoms, biochemical and pathomorphological studies

age of onset of disease
predominant damage to certain groups in the population
type of inheritance
nature of the mutation

biochemical analysis of urine and blood
examination data by an ophthalmologist, cardiologist and paraclinical research methods
clinical symptoms, studies of the concentration of Na and Cl ions in sweat fluid
characteristic clinical symptoms, electromyography data and determination of serum creatinine phosphokinase levels

50%;
25%;
100%.

50%;
25%;
100%.

02.70. Genetic diseases are caused by:

loss of part of the chromosomal material
increase in chromosomal material
loss of two or more genes
single gene mutation

data for determining the concentration of Na and Cl ions in sweat fluid
characteristic neurological symptoms, time of onset and nature of the course, determination of the level of creatinine phosphokinase in the blood serum
examination by an ophthalmologist, neurologist, ultrasound data
histological examination results

50%;
25%;
75%.

primary gene effect
effect of environmental factors
presence of modifier genes
gene dosage effect
all of the above

lack of Mendelization
Children get sick more often
possibility of isolating individual forms with the effect of the main gene

predominant defeat of men
independence from degree of consanguinity
high frequency in the population
greater risk of developing the disease in relatives with a lower incidence of the disease in the population

phenylketonuria
Kleinfelter's syndrome
hypertension
Arnold-Chiari malformation

spinal amyotrophy of Werdnig-Hoffmann
cleft lip, palate
Friedreich's foot
Marfan syndrome

trisomy 17
trisomy 18
deletion of chromosome 18
inversion of chromosome 17

trisomy 14
trisomy 13
deletion of chromosome 18
duplication of chromosome 18

primary amenorrhea
monosomy X
identifying symptoms from birth
short stature
all of the above

presence of phenylketonuria in one of the parents
carriage of a balanced chromosomal rearrangement in one of the parents
high levels of alpha-fetoprotein in the mother's blood
one of the parents has diabetes

primary amenorrhea
microorchidism
dolichocephaly, arachnodactyly
all of the above

violation of sexual differentiation
presence of enzymopathies
multiple congenital anomalies of internal organs
no changes in karyotype
monosomy

egg
squamous epithelium
endothelium
neuron
myocyte

Down syndrome
"cry the cat" syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Marfan syndrome

chromosome size
location of the primary constriction
streaking in differential staining
all of the above

establishing the hereditary nature of the disease
establishing the type of inheritance
determining the circle of people who need a detailed examination
all of the above
none of the above

buccal test
biochemical
microbiological
population
immunofluorescent

genetic engineering
antibiotic therapy
limiting the introduction of a harmful product
replacement therapy

broadcast
inversion
mimicry
repolarization
extrapolation

hemophilia
Shereshevsky-Turner syndrome
Duchenne myopathy
neurofibromatosis
schizophrenia

aneuploidy
polysomy
polyploidy
inversion

telomere
centromere
satellite
chromosome arm

morganic
incest
inbreeding
polygamy

from 2 to 6 months
from 2 months to 1 year
from 2 months to 3 years
from 2 months to 5-6 years
all my life

Mongoloid eye shape
mental retardation
speech disorders
congenital heart defects
pyramidal insufficiency

in boys
in persons of both sexes
only for adults

arachnodactyly
heart defects
subluxations of the lens
mental retardation
all the listed symptoms

absent
insignificant
significant
depends on the age of the parents
depends on the gender of the patient

02.100. The scapulohumeral-facial form of myopathy (Landouzi - Dezherina) has

autosomal dominant mode of inheritance
autosomal recessive mode of inheritance
autosomal recessive, X-linked type of inheritance
autosomal recessive and autosomal dominant mode of inheritance
type of inheritance unknown

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